Was the Septuagint used in the translation of the King James Version (KJV) of the Bible? Is it just for the Old Testament or the New Testament?

  • Welcome to Stack Exchange, we are glad you are here. When you have a minute, you may want to read up on how this site is a little different than other sites around the web. – ThaddeusB Nov 28 '15 at 4:37
  • 1
    Do you mind if we broaden this question to ask "What did the King James translators use as sources?" The question is very basic, but we don't seem to have an existing question on the subject so it would good to have a single question which can cover all the sources at once. – ThaddeusB Nov 28 '15 at 4:44
  • Got ya. I'm talking to a King James Onlyist. He says that the Greek Septuagint is corrupted because it came from Alexandria, yadda yadda. So I've heard that part of the King James (Old Testament) is translated from the Septuagint. I could research this myself but just wanted to pop a few question on here to see if I'd get some answers and get started. – spo joe Feb 19 '16 at 2:51

For the old testament, the Septuagint was used over the Masoretic test, where the reading found in it supported traditional Christian doctrine, more so than the reading found in the Masoretic text i.e. Psalm 22:16 "they pierced my hands and my feet."

To answer the second part of your question, the Septuagint predates the new testament, so it contains the old testament, and some of the apocryphal books.

Finally, as Susan points out in the comments below, the Hebrew Masoretic text was the primary text used for old testament. The Septuagint was used primarily for the Apocrypha, with the Vulgate was used for apocryphal books not found in the Septuagint (i.e. 2 Esdras), and Erasmus' Textus Receptus was used for the new testament.

  • 3
    “Used”, sure, but the base text of the KJV OT is the Masoretic text. Check out Job 2:9 (KJV/MT, LXX), for example. (I think you realize this but read the question a little differently than I did; I’m not sure if the OP realized this.) – Susan Nov 28 '15 at 4:34
  • They can profess that they base their translation on the masoret, but in reality, they do an interpretive translation from the septuagint absorbing all its misconcepts, and then use the masoret as the paper weight, so as to claim their translations are "based on the masoret". – Cynthia Avishegnath Dec 2 '15 at 12:30
  • What translations were the Masoretic texts based off of? Were they influenced by the Septuagint? – spo joe Feb 19 '16 at 3:00

Your Answer

By clicking "Post Your Answer", you acknowledge that you have read our updated terms of service, privacy policy and cookie policy, and that your continued use of the website is subject to these policies.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.