Does Hebrew ever give masculine modifiers to grammatically feminine subjects? (Yes or No - and where). For example, "Julie gave money [he gave]". I'm just wondering if this exists, as I just discovered that groups of people can be given singular masculine verbs if they "act in unity" which seems to "break" standard grammatical rules. I learned this from another stackexchange article:

Why is a singular verb used to describe both Moses and Aaron?

I can't read Hebrew, which is why I'm seeing if anyone has run across this, or knows where to check. I can check the grammar if someone tells me where to look.

  • Welcome to Stack Exchange! If you haven't done so already, check out the site tour. In particular, be sure to read the section on what constitutes a good question and answer. If you feel like you might have anything to contribute to a question by posting an answer, Please note that "showing your work" is required for answers to be considered "good" and get upvotes from the community on this Stack Exchange. Your question is really good and interesting but usually questions which do not arise from a specific passage will be closed as off topic. Nov 13 '15 at 3:22
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    I'm voting to close this question as off-topic because it is a question about the Hebrew language as opposed to a specific Bible passage. However, please consider joining the Hebrew SE proposal where the question would be on topic (and very good).
    – ThaddeusB
    Nov 13 '15 at 4:21
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    Gesenius: Agreement between the Members of a Sentence
    – Susan
    Nov 13 '15 at 7:38
  • Susan, that is a fantastic link. This is what I found: "—So feminine forms with a masculine meaning are construed with a masculine predicate, e.g. Ec 129 הָיָה קֹהֶ֫לֶת חָכָם‎ the preacher was wise." It led me to this article and I'm trying to see if I can get it. jstor.org/stable/3262325 Masculine Predicates with Feminine Subjects in the Hebrew Bible Mayer G. Slonim Journal of Biblical Literature Vol. 63, No. 3 (Sep., 1944), pp. 297-302 Thank you. Nov 15 '15 at 8:00

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