The Greek text of Matt. 3:4:

Αὐτὸς δὲ ὁ Ἰωάννης εἶχεν τὸ ἔνδυμα αὑτοῦ ἀπὸ τριχῶν καμήλου, καὶ ζώνην δερματίνην περὶ τὴν ὀσφὺν αὑτοῦ ἡ δὲ τροφὴ αὐτοῦ ἦν ἀκρίδες, καὶ μέλι ἄγριον TR, 1550

Is it possible to translate (according to greek grammar, particularly of the role of complex predicative) like this schema:

"And the same John had his raiment made:
1. from camel's hair,
2. and a leather girdle around his loins;
-. (of course not part of the raiment:) and his food was locusts and wild honey."

Not like this (classical translations): "And the same John had his:
1. raiment made from camel's hair,
2. and a leather girdle around his loins; and
3. his food was locusts and wild honey."

  • Welcome to Stack Exchange, we are glad you are here. When you have a chance, be sure to check out the site tour and read up on how this site is a little different than other sites around the web. This is not a comment on the quality of your question, but rather a standard welcome message. That said, I do not understand what you mean by "accept this text to the explanation". Can you clarify please?
    – ThaddeusB
    Commented Oct 4, 2015 at 19:05
  • Darek, I hope you don't mind me asking, but do you see some interpretative significance in this distinction or are you mostly trying to solidify your grasp of the grammar?
    – Ruminator
    Commented Nov 4, 2017 at 19:52

1 Answer 1


No, I don't believe so.

If I understand correctly, you are essentially asking if ἔνδυμα αὐτοῦ ἀπὸ τριχῶν καμήλου καὶ ζώνην δερματίνην could be understood to mean that the raiment (ἔνδυμα) consisted of a combination of (1) camel's hair (τριχῶν καμήλου) and (2) a belt (ζώνην δερματίνην).

In the verse cited, ἔνδυμα ("raiment") is followed by the pronoun ἀπό, which (I believe) always takes the genitive case. θρίξ ("hair") is in the genitive case (τριχῶν), but ζώνη ("belt") is not: it is in the accusative case, just as is the direct object ἔνδυμα. Both ἔνδυμα and ζώνη seem to be the direct objects of the verb εἶχε ("has") in this verse.

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