3

In 2 Corinthians 5:21, it is written,

God made the one who did not know sin to be sin for us, so that in him we would become the righteousness of God. (NET)

τὸν γὰρ μὴ γνόντα ἁμαρτίαν ὑπὲρ ἡμῶν ἁμαρτίαν ἐποίησεν ἵνα ἡμεῖς γινώμεθα δικαιοσύνη θεοῦ ἐν αὐτῷ (TR, 1550)

What is the proper interpretation of this verse? In what sense was Christ "made sin"?

1
  • This is a fine question but as written it has two parts. One of those parts asking for analysis for how this verse should be interpreted is very much off limits for Christianity but quite on topic for Biblical Hermeneutics. As a result I have migrated the question here to be answered. On the other hand the bit about church history and how the church fathers interpreted this is not on topic here but would be on C.SE. I would encourage you to re-post a version of this question over there that asks just the latter part (and also specifies what group of church fathers you're interested in). – Caleb Oct 1 '15 at 6:17

Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.