Rev. 2:24 King James Bible:

But unto you I say, and unto the rest in Thyatira, as many as have not this doctrine, and which have not known the depths of Satan, as they speak; I will put upon you none other burden"

What did John mean by "depths of Satan" here?


The meaning can be found in the preceding verses:

Revelation 2:20-23: Notwithstanding I have a few things against thee, because thou sufferest that woman Jezebel, which calleth herself a prophetess, to teach and to seduce my servants to commit fornication, and to eat things sacrificed unto idols. And I gave her space to repent of her fornication; and she repented not. Behold, I will cast her into a bed, and them that commit adultery with her into great tribulation, except they repent of their deeds. And I will kill her children with death; and all the churches shall know that I am he which searcheth the reins and hearts: and I will give unto every one of you according to your works.

'Jezebel' need not have been the woman's actual name, but calling her Jezebel harks back to the most wicked woman in the Old Testament, Queen Jezebel, supposedly famous for introducing idolatry into Israel. John portrays Jesus as so angry at this Jezebel's teachings among the Christians of Thyatira that he will put her into a bed to be raped, and then kill her children. This is, of course, all symbolism and the real issue is not adultery but that there are some who listen to her teachings.

Revelation 2:24: But unto you I say, and unto the rest in Thyatira, as many as have not this doctrine, and which have not known the depths of Satan, as they speak; I will put upon you none other burden.

Here, John is so angry that he refers to the alleged prophetess' teachings as knowing 'the depths of Satan'. Those who have not listened to these teachings will suffer none other burden.


I recently discovered through a divorce that my husband of 28yrs and father of my 4 kids has been living a double life of crime, theft, adultery, and a pornography addiction I believed he'd been delivered from. He has big-time ties with the occult and someone is brainwashing my adult children against me. I'm still trying to figure out how he hid it all so well sitting on a pew in church with me. He's had another wife and kid our entire marriage and I discovered all of this through a divorce.

Because of his ties which apparently are a ginormous secret, I've been the one blamed and shamed. I'm scared again and have not one outlet or person to talk to. No one seems to believe me, even tho the documented evidence is undeniable.

  • I'm sorry for your loss. This forum is unlike other chat forums. Though you are reaching out, this forum is not for personal chat or counseling. It is intended to examine the scripture using various hermeneutic frameworks. Though scripture speaks to us individually, our individual opinions and applications are off topic. It is unlikely John had your husband in mind when he wrote the verse. The OP is asking for the intent of the original author. Get a lawyer to help you file charges of bigamy where the facts may be established in court. Our prayers are with you
    – Bob Jones
    Oct 10 at 11:00
  • Welcome to the site Linda. The 'Tour' below, left, explains how to use it. Now, you have given an appalling experience of you suffering from what could serve as a modern-day example of "the depths of Satan", especially if the person apparently claimed to be a Christian. In order for your answer to remain, it needs to be linked to the actual question, so I suggest you make an introductory sentence (such as my third sentence) and then conclude with a paragraph about the verse in question. I'm just o ff to pray for you now...
    – Anne
    Oct 10 at 11:48

The following is quoted from the The Interpreter's One-Volume Commentary on the Bible (1971), Charles M Laymon ed. The chapter on The Revelation to John was written by S. MacLean Gilmour.

It is uncertain to what deep things of Satan refers. Early heretics known as Gnostics claimed to have access to depths of knowledge [of God] denied the uninitiated, and some interpreters believe that John has replaced "of God" with "of Satan." Others believe that, since the whole phrase is said to be in current use, those concerned maintained that they were capable of probing the depths of evil without thereby contaminating themselves. Still others relate the phrase to John's overriding horror of emperor worship, whose devotees could be described as having plumbed Satanic depths.

  • @Beachrat I see that your response was down voted without explanation. I won't presume to speak for the downvoter but I suspect this is because you cite a commentary without adding contributing anything more to the discussion. The commentary presents differing views. Do you consider one view more cogent than the others?
    – user10231
    Apr 23 '16 at 16:36
  • Satan is a baaaaah d guy Feb 15 '19 at 2:02

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