The allusions to Psalm 22 in the Gospel accounts of Jesus' crucifixion are well-known and have been discussed on BH.SE on several occasions. I recently ran across the claim (e.g. in a blog and a JETS paper) that the word τετέλεσται ('[it] is finished/accompished') in John 19:30 alludes to עָשָׂה in Psalm 22:32 ('he has done [it]', Rahlfs LXX: 'ἐποίησεν ὁ κύριος'). The JETS paper by Richard Patterson points out that the forms of עשה√ are elsewhere in the LXX translated using a passive form of τελέω.
Thus Nehemiah (6:16) reports that his enemies “lost their self-confidence because they realized that this work had been done [HB, נֶעֶשְׂתָה / lxx, τελειωθῆναι] by the help of our God.” The Lord declared through Isaiah (55:11) that his spoken word would “accomplish [HB, עָשָׂה / lxx, τελεσθῇ] what I desire, and achieve the purpose for which I sent it.” 1
Neither is a perfect parallel. Nehemiah 6:16 translates a Hebrew nifal (passive), and Isaiah 55:11 reads συντελεσθῇ in Rahlfs (as the author notes).
- Is an allusion to the Psalm intended in John 19:30?2
1. The following sentence
Thus Jesus did not do violence to the range of meanings inherent in the Hebrew verbal root assumes that Jesus was speaking Greek, which seems to me odd, but for the purpose of this question we shall ignore the distinction between Jesus, John, or someone else who might have done the translation.
2. Interestingly, while googling this question, I ran across an answer on another Q&A on this site that made this claim, still unsubstantiated despite my comment requesting references.