Many† of the Psalms begin with some variation of:
LXX: Ψαλμὸς τῷ Δαυιδ
ESV: A psalm of David
However, as mentioned in Part (2) of this answer about Psalm 72:20, the translation of the lamed preposition (or the Greek dative) as an attribution of authorship is not obvious. In fact, 72:20 uses a construct noun‡ to denote a genitive relationship: תְפִלּ֑וֹת דָּ֝וִ֗ד ('prayers of David') which seems (in my very limited understanding of the Hebrew language) like a more natural way to indicate this. If 72:20 is understood to refer to the same relationship as the superscripts (as it apparently is at least in that answer), though, perhaps they are interchangeable in this context.
Are there other examples (within or outside of the Psalms) of the lamed preposition used to indicate a relationship that clearly is one of authorship? Or other examples using a lamed to connect a person to a text in some other relationship? How should it be understood and translated in the Psalms?
† Seventy-three by my count and wikipedia. Although all v.1 in Hebrew, about half of them are not included within the versification system of the English.
‡ I presume, based on the fact that it’s next to דָּ֝וִד without a preposition, although I think this is identical to the would-be absolute form, which doesn’t elsewhere occur in the plural.