εἴπερ εἷς ὁ θεὸς ὃς δικαιώσει περιτομὴν ἐκ πίστεως καὶ ἀκροβυστίαν διὰ τῆς πίστεως.(NA28)
since God is one—who will justify the circumcised by faith and the uncircumcised through [∅] faith. (ESV)
There are two differences I see between the first and second statements about justification:
- The preposition is different.
- The second statement adds the article to the abstract noun.*
I think the article is probably anaphoric, referring back to the first πίστεως (i.e. «through that same faith» or some such). Some translations indicate that. I’m at a loss about the meaning of the shift in prepositions. The ESV has reflected the shift by using two different English prepositions, but the difference isn’t obvious to me in English either.
What is the reason for these differences?
*Notably, the object of a preposition. I think most people would agree that it isn’t necessary for definiteness there, so its presence probably indicates something else.