9

As far as I can tell, these are the exact same word, down to the cantillation marks. And H121 even says, "the same as H120".

From Strong's:

H120 - 'adam אָדָם, from אָדַם (H119):

man, mankind

  1. man, human being
  2. man, mankind (much more frequently intended sense in OT)
  3. Adam, first man
  4. city in Jordan valley

and

H121 - 'adam אָדָם, the same as אָדָם (H120):

Adam = "red"

  1. first man
  2. city in Jordan valley

Why the two separate entries?

16

Strong’s is distinguishing between the proper noun and the common noun.* See also, for instance, other pairs:

  • H127 אֲדָמָה (ground)
  • H128 אֲדָמָה (Adamah, a city in Naphtali)

or

  • H168 אֹ֫הֶל (tent)
  • H169 אֹ֫הֶל (Ohel, a name mentioned in 1 Chronicles)

And we’re only on aleph...

By the way, those aren’t really cantillation marks but nekudot, representing vowels.

And since we’re on the topic, please remember that Strong’s is a concordance, not a lexicon.


*For more on how this pair can occasionally be confusing, see another question on this site: Hosea 6.7: “like men”, “like Adam”, or “at Adam”?

| improve this answer | |
  • But the glosses it gives seem to indicate both are used as proper nouns! – curiousdannii Nov 25 '15 at 1:02

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