Isaiah 7:14b reads:
הִנֵּ֣ה הָעַלְמָ֗ה הָרָה֙ וְיֹלֶ֣דֶת בֵּ֔ן וְקָרָ֥את שְׁמֹ֖ו עִמָּ֥נוּ אֵֽל׃
This is often translated similarly to the ESV:
Behold, the virgin shall conceive and bear a son, and shall call his name Immanuel.
In this translation, the subject of "call" appears to be hāʿalmâ (ESV, "the virgin”), which would normally reflect a 3rd person feminine singular inflection of the Hebrew verb. However, the finite verb וְקָרָ֥את (wəqārāt̲, and she will call | and you (fem) will call) appears to be a 2nd person feminine singular. The English translation is also not adequately explained by the LXX which uses a second person singular verb, καλέσεις.
The NET is the only major translation I see that uses a second person verb, "You, young woman, will name him…" Their notes explain:
The verb is normally taken as an archaic third feminine singular form here, and translated, “she will call.” However the form (קָרָאת, qara’t) is more naturally understood as second feminine singular, in which case the words would be addressed to the young woman mentioned just before this.
They go on to illustrate how every other instance of קָרָא (qārāʾ, “to call”) uses the normal inflections for the second and third person feminine singular verbs. (There are two instances of the unusual קָרָאת (qārāt̲) as a third feminine singular, but these are actually a different, homonymous verb.) The NET translation identifies the second person referent by using a demonstrative "this young woman" for hāʿalmâ earlier in the verse.
This makes a lot of sense to me because it’s a verb form I recognize. However, it’s not the decision made by most translators. It seems like there must be some compelling reason that other translations have decided otherwise. What is the reason?