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What does the Greek word κύριος mean in 1 Cor. 12:3?

Is the phrase «κύριος Ἰησοῦς» to be understood as "Jesus is Yahveh" (where κύριος is a substitute for the Tetragrammaton), or "Jesus is the lord" (where κύριος simply means "master," "lord")?

1 Cor. 12:3

So I want you to know that no one speaking by the Spirit of God will curse Jesus, and no one can say Jesus is Lord, except by the Holy Spirit. (New Living Translation)

διὸ γνωρίζω ὑμῖν ὅτι οὐδεὶς ἐν πνεύματι θεοῦ λαλῶν λέγει ἀνάθεμα Ἰησοῦς καὶ οὐδεὶς δύναται εἰπεῖν κύριος Ἰησοῦς εἰ μὴ ἐν πνεύματι ἁγίῳ (Textus Receptus)

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    Is it "Jesus is lord" or is it simply "lord Jesus"? The one is a statement of "fact" (so why wouldn't they be able to say it) while the latter is a statement of faith. But there is no way it is a divine title since he only received it after his obedience to death and ascension. Act_2:36 Therefore let all the house of Israel know assuredly, that God hath made that same Jesus, whom ye have crucified, both Lord and Christ. – user10231 Dec 19 '16 at 1:22
  • [Mat 7:22 KJV] 22 Many will say to me in that day, Lord, Lord, have we not prophesied in thy name? and in thy name have cast out devils? and in thy name done many wonderful works? Apparently it isn't too HARD to say "Jesus is KURIOS" in a prophecy. – Ruminator Jan 16 '19 at 0:19
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The Greek word κύριος means "Master-Lord-Ruler". It has no connection to "Yahveh", which in Greek is translated (excluding pronouns and articles) using forms of the verb "εἰμὶ" (to be) . Also, the audience of the epistle has a Greek cultural background, where the word "κύριος" (lord) is not used in place of the word "θεός" (god).

However, Paul, being a former Pharisee, uses the word "κύριος" extensively when refering to Jesus, as for a religious Jew this is a reserved way of refering to "Yahveh". He would call Jesus either "Lord Jesus" or "Jesus Christ" (Jesus the Annointed; "Christ" is a transliteration of "Χριστός", a Greek word). The whole point of Christianity is that Jesus is the Son of God sent by God to earth as the Messiah that brings salvation to the human kind. From a Jewish standpoint, calling Jesus Lord is calling him God, and calling Jesus Annointed is calling him Messiah.

In this verse, Paul proclaims that one cannot recognize that Jesus is more than a man if not by enlightment by the Holy Spirit. Even though the word does not mean or imply "God" in Greek, it is obvious that it used in this way, since what Paul teaches is that Jesus is God.

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    (-1) You profoundly misread Paul. You say "what Paul teaches is that Jesus is God". Really? In what universe? Paul says that God made Jesus lord because of his obedience. And he says: "1Co_8:6 But to us there is but one God, the Father, of whom are all things, and we in him; and one Lord Jesus Christ, by whom are all things, and we by him." – user10231 Dec 19 '16 at 0:38
  • Romans 9:5, NRSV: "to them belong the patriarchs, and from them, according to the flesh, comes the Messiah, who is over all, God blessed forever. Amen." – nxavar Jul 8 '17 at 17:44
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    Correction Paul teaches that Jesus is the Son of God,Hebrews 4:14;14 Since, then, we have a great high priest who has passed through the heavens, Jesus, the Son of God, let us hold fast to our confession. Please give verses to support your statements. – Ozzie Ozzie May 4 '18 at 19:18
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    @OzzieNicolas You realize those who say Jesus is God mean He is God precisely because He is the Son of God, right? – Sola Gratia Jan 15 '19 at 0:24
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    "It has no connection to "Yahveh" Well now, that's just not true: it was virtually exclusively how "Yahweh" was rendered in the Greek Old Testament. – Sola Gratia Jan 15 '19 at 0:25
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What does the Greek word κύριος mean in 1 Cor. 12:3?

In the Greek Koine language the expression "kyrios Iesous" also appears in Philippians 2:11, which I have noted below.

1 Corinthians 12:3 (NASB)

" Therefore I make known to you that no one speaking [a]by the Spirit of God says, “Jesus is [b]accursed”; and no one can say, “Jesus is Lord,” except [c]by the Holy Spirit."

ΠΡΟΣ ΚΟΡΙΝΘΙΟΥΣ Α΄ 12:3 1881 Westcott-Hort New Testament (WHNU)

3" διο γνωριζω υμιν οτι ουδεις εν πνευματι θεου λαλων λεγει αναθεμα ιησους και ουδεις δυναται ειπειν κυριος ιησους ει μη εν πνευματι αγιω."

Philippians 2:11 (NASB)

11" And that every tongue will confess that Jesus Christ is Lord, to the glory of God the Father."

ΠΡΟΣ ΦΙΛΙΠΠΗΣΙΟΥΣ 2:11 1881 Westcott-Hort New Testament (WHNU)

11 "και πασα γλωσσα εξομολογησηται οτι κυριος ιησους χριστος εις δοξαν θεου πατρος."

In both verses in the Koine language Phil.2:1 and 1 Cor.12:3 the word " kyrios" is without the definite article, so the word kyrios is a title that a person may be addressed. Therefore it is incorrect to translate "KYRIOS IESOUS" into "Jehovah Jesus" ,anyway it sounds absurd.

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  • Good point about the obvious unacceptable juxtaposition in your last paragraph. +1 – Ruminator Jan 16 '19 at 13:21
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LORD -

"The title, Lord, is the translation of three Greek words Kurios is by far the most frequent word used. It means authority and lordship as the result of ownership “Ye are not your own, for ye are bought with a price: therefore glorify God in your body, and in your spirit, which are God's” (1 Cor. 6:20)."-http://biblecentre.org/content.php?mode=7&item=445

"Kύριος" as mentioned above it a title to show that the one who is addressed as "Lord" has or hold some kind of power or authority. Being as you used 1 Cor. 12:3 with this address therein. Others example of Jesus being given power by Jehovah are:-

NWT Acts 10:36 "He sent out the word to the sons of Israel to declare to them the good news of peace through Jesus Christ—this one is Lord of all."

NWT Romans 6:23 "For the wages sin pays is death, but the gift God gives is everlasting life by Christ Jesus our Lord."

NWT 2 Corinthians 11:31 "The God and Father of the Lord Jesus, the One who is to be praised forever, knows I am not lying."

NWT Philippians 2:11 "...every tongue should openly acknowledge that Jesus Christ is Lord to the glory of God the Father.

Here is from whom Jesus receives his Lordship:-

NWT Matthew 28:18 "Jesus approached and spoke to them, saying: “All authority has been given me in heaven and on the earth.

NWT Acts 2:36 "Therefore, let all the house of Israel know for a certainty that God made him both Lord and Christ, this Jesus whom you executed on a stake.”

NWT Ephesians 5:19, 20 "Speak to one another with psalms, praises to God, and spiritual songs, singing and accompanying yourselves with music in your hearts to Jehovah, 20 always giving thanks to our God and Father for everything in the name of our Lord Jesus Christ."

NWT Acts 16:31, 32 "They said: “Believe in the Lord Jesus, and you will get saved, you and your household.” 32 Then they spoke the word of Jehovah to him together with all those in his house."

To help us to have further insight of "Lord" is the related title by which Jesus in scripture is called; "Despotes."

Despotes , another word used, but only twice used of Christ. (See 2 Pet. 2:1; Jude 4.) It is derived from deo , to bind, and pous , the foot. It has the meaning of unlimited despotic authority, which surely the Lord is entitled to."-http://biblecentre.org/content.php?mode=7&item=445

Below "Owner" = "Despotes."

NWT 2 Peter 2:1 "However, there also came to be false prophets among the people, as there will also be false teachers among you. These will quietly bring in destructive sects, and they will even disown the owner who bought them, bringing speedy destruction upon themselves."

NWT Jude 4 "My reason is that certain men have slipped in among you who were long ago appointed to this judgment by the Scriptures; they are ungodly men who turn the undeserved kindness of our God into an excuse for brazen conduct and who prove false to our only owner and Lord, Jesus Christ.

Jesus in the above is both "Lord" and "Owner" of Christian as he bought us with his life blood as our Ransom, thus is is most worthy to be called our "Lord."

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The word κύριος is the chosen word to represent יהוה / YHWH in the LXX nearly every time it appears in the Hebrew Text. Thus, it does offer a plausible objetion to this usage as only meaning 'lord' or 'master' as in a general sense, when one would speak to a ruler of any sort in the Greek world. It is also noteworthy that יהוה in the Hebrew transliteration does not occur in the NT scriptures except for in names and praise such as ἀλληλούΐα.

So in order to know if Jesus is being equated with YHWH through the term κύριος in 1 Cor. 12:3, you would need to find and develop a context surrounding this usage in this section of Corinthians and the book as a whole and then see how our author, Paul, uses the term κύριος in it.

1Co 12:3  Wherefore I give you to understand, that no man speaking by the Spirit of God calleth Jesus accursed: and that no man can say that Jesus is the Lord, but by the Holy Ghost. 

1Co 12:4  Now there are diversities of gifts, but the same Spirit

1Co 12:5  And there are differences of administrations, but the same Lord (κυριος)

1Co 12:6  And there are diversities of operations, but it is the same God which worketh all in all. 

The subject mater seems to relate back to a similar context in this book:

1Co 8:6  But to us there is but one God, the Father, of whom are all things, and we in him; and one Lord Jesus Christ, by whom are all things, and we by him.

And this contextually answers to Paul's point of introduction in this Epistle: 

1Co 1:31  That, according as it is written, He that glorieth, let him glory in the Lord.

And this is a partial quote of the content of  

Zec_10:12  καὶ κατισχύσω αὐτοὺς ἐν κυρίῳ θεῷ αὐτῶν, καὶ ἐν τῷ ὀνόματι αὐτοῦ κατακαυχήσονται, λέγει κύριος.

Zec 10:12  And I will strengthen them in the Lord their God; and they shall boast in his name, saith the Lord. 

Even more compelling as to the reference Paul is tying into the concept of 1 Corinthians and in the statement made in our focus verse is the 'glory in the Lord' is:

Jer 9:23  Thus saith the Lord, Let not the wise man glory/boast in his wisdom, and let not the strong man boast in his strength, and let not the rich man boast in his wealth; 

Jer 9:23  (9:22) Τάδε λέγει κύριος Μὴ καυχάσθω ὁ σοφὸς ἐν τῇ σοφίᾳ αὐτοῦ, καὶ μὴ καυχάσθω ὁ ἰσχυρὸς ἐν τῇ ἰσχύι αὐτοῦ, καὶ μὴ καυχάσθω ὁ πλούσιος ἐν τῷ πλούτῳ αὐτοῦ, 

Jer 9:24 but let him that boasts boast in this, the understanding and knowing that I am the Lord that exercise mercy, and judgment, and righteousness, upon the earth; for in these things is my pleasure, saith the Lord.

Jer 9:24  (9:23) ἀλλ’ ἢ ἐν τούτῳ καυχάσθω ὁ καυχώμενος, συνίειν καὶ γινώσκειν ὅτι ἐγώ εἰμι κύριος ποιῶν ἔλεος καὶ κρίμα καὶ δικαιοσύνην ἐπὶ τῆς γῆς, ὅτι ἐν τούτοις τὸ θέλημά μου, λέγει κύριος. 

And this part of Jeramiah is the exact point Paul makes concerning the wise in:

1Co 2:4  And my speech and my preaching was not with enticing words of man's wisdom, but in demonstration of the Spirit and of power: 

1Co 2:5  That your faith should not stand in the wisdom of men, but in the power of God. 

1Co 2:6  Howbeit we speak wisdom among them that are perfect: yet not the wisdom of this world, nor of the princes of this world, that come to nought: 

1Co 2:7  But we speak the wisdom of God in a mystery, even the hidden wisdom, which God ordained before the world unto our glory: 

1Co 2:8  Which none of the princes of this world knew: for had they known it, they would not have crucified the Lord of glory. 

NEVERTHELESS the Name of the LORD / κύριος in reference in Jer 9:23-24 and in Zec 10:12 of the LXX which Paul has been building his case on in this Epistle is in the Hebrew Text יהוה / YHWH...every time!

It would make a confusing mess if in Paul's quote of Hebrew Scripture he meant Jesus...or would it?

1Co 12:3 Wherefore I give you to understand, that no man speaking by the Spirit of God calleth Jesus accursed: and that no man can say that Jesus is the Lord, but by the Holy Ghost.

Jer 9:24 but let him that glories glory in this, the **understanding and knowing that I am the Lord/κύριος/ יהוה / YHWH** that exercise mercy, and judgment, and righteousness, upon the earth; for in these things is my pleasure, saith the Lord.

Hope this helps

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  • So in 1 Corinthians 8:6, how many YHVHs are there? One, two or three? Is "the Holy Ghost" a third YHVH? hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/questions/22495/… – Ruminator Jan 16 '19 at 13:33
  • There is No YHWH or YHVH in 1Corinthians 8:6, but one κύριος/Lord by whom are ALL things. – Lowther Jan 16 '19 at 17:08
  • Using apposition Paul says "there is one God, the Father" (ie: the Shema). But he adds "and one KURIOS". So did Paul extend the Shema to the Messiah but not to the oft-neglected "Holy Ghost"? – Ruminator Jan 16 '19 at 17:16
  • I believe that God IS the Father but it "pleased the Father" that in his Messiah all of his revelation of himself would be embodied. Christ is the "second YHVH" of Jewish Binitarianism but he was "begotten" by God putting his covenant name with Israel ("YHVH") into him. youtube.com/watch?v=ROegLeI7CKA – Ruminator Jan 16 '19 at 17:19
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    Chat room wasn't working for me-. I don't like the term Trinity, I like Calvin's thoughts, but I love Christ's more, I'm a Christian, I believe in God's Law as an absolute authority on right and wrong, good and evil, this then by prohibition of the 2nd commandment dis allows the worship of men, and Christ was "the man Jesus Christ" in the flesh, the son of man. So, in regards to the pre incarnate state of The word/ Logos begotten of the holy spirit, Christ is in some way YHWH as his Word.with out too deep of theology, there I am. – Lowther Jan 16 '19 at 22:38
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This is a theological assertion by Paul, to the effect that only through Holy Spirit can one understand the divinity of Christ.

Jesus Himself says the same, when He asserts that the Prophet David perceived through Holy Spirit His Lordship (Matthew 22:45), interpreting in this way the Psalmic expression "Lord told to my Lord: "Sit at my right hand" (Psalm 110:1); who can be above the only prophetic king in the world who is under direct protection of one true God, for only his kingdom on earth is free from worship of idols? No other king, no other prophet, for prophets do not call each other "Lord"; perhaps an angel? But no angel or archangel or super-archangel sits at the right hand of Lord, as an indication of equality with Him and bearing the same name for in Greek, which was the basic language of Christian preaching, both are called κύριος in this psalm). Thus, as in Matthew's Gospel Jesus asserts His own divinity revealed to David through the Holy Spirit, here also, Paul asserts the same: that the divinity of Christ is revealed to humans through the Spirit, and moreover, without Spirit's instruction and guidance nobody can discern it.

Thus, Father reveals His Son's divinity through His Spirit, as in case of Peter, who discerned the unique Sonship of Jesus not by any human effort ("flesh and blood"), but "by My Father in Heaven" (Matthew 16:17), implicatively, through the Holy Spirit; and similarly, the Holy Spirit's guidance reveals to Thomas the divinity of Christ at the sight of His resurrection, when Thomas worships Him with appellation: "my Lord, my God" (John 20:28).

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The Roman Imperator was able to force his will on Rome because, in the Roman Imperial cult the Imperator was divinely selected by the gods of Rome and through apotheosis they and their families would become gods (divus) upon their deaths.

Another element in the Roman state religion was what is generally referred to as the imperial cult. This cult regarded emperors and members of their families as gods.

Another element in the Roman state religion was what is generally referred to as the imperial cult. This cult regarded emperors and members of their families as gods. On his death, Julius Caesar was officially recognised as a god, the Divine ('Divus') Julius, by the Roman state. And in 29 BC Caesar's adopted son, the first Roman emperor Augustus, allowed the culturally Greek cities of Asia Minor to set up temples to him. This was really the first manifestation of Roman emperor-worship. While worship of a living emperor was culturally acceptable in some parts of the empire, in Rome itself and in Italy it was not. There an emperor was usually declared a 'divus' only on his death, and was subsequently worshipped (especially on anniversaries, like that of his accession) with sacrifice like any other gods...

So while the Roman Imperators were too bashful to declare themselves to be gods ("divus") while living, they were honored as gods after their death, maintaining national loyalty.

So to declare the Jewish Messiah to be the son of God, Lord, etc. was a revolutionary act, putting the risen Messiah in dangerous competition with the Imperators.

It has already been pointed out that Koine lexica identify multiple ways that KURIOS is used, even within the NT, so we must immediately dispense with the notion that the word, "by definition", means "YHVH". That's patently false and I won't address that further here except to point to this example which I don't think has been raised yet:

[Jhn 4:19 KJV] 19 The woman saith unto him, Sir [IE: KURIOS], I perceive that thou art a prophet.

She would not have said "YHVH, I can tell you are a prophet" as that would make no sense.

Context

If we look at the context Paul is discussing the "manifestations of the spirit/breath of God":

[1Co 12:1 DBY] But concerning spiritual [manifestations], brethren, I do not wish you to be ignorant.

He reminds them how before they were rescued they were "so open minded that their brains would fall out" (like the "Funny Mentalists" that ape the spiritual manifestations given in the last days of the Jewish covenants to divinely endorse the apostles). IE: prophecies that don't come true, healings that require pretending you don't have symptoms, "tongues" that are gibberish, etc. They would ignorantly be led in paths of darkness by the spirit that is operating still among the disobedient:

[1Co 12:2 DBY] Ye know that when ye were [of the] nations [ye were] led away to dumb idols, in whatever way ye might be led.

[Eph 2:1-3 DBY] 1 and you, being dead in your offences and sins -- 2 in which ye once walked according to the age of this world, according to the ruler of the authority of the air, the spirit who now works in the sons of disobedience: 3 among whom we also all once had our conversation in the lusts of our flesh, doing what the flesh and the thoughts willed to do, and were children, by nature, of wrath, even as the rest:

Or rather, "...according to the ruler of the authority of the air of the breath that now operates in the disobedient...".

[1Co 12:3 DBY] I give you therefore to know, that no one, speaking in [the power of the] Spirit of God, says, Curse [on] Jesus; and no one can say, Lord Jesus, unless in [the power of the] Holy Spirit.

So Paul is "giving them to know" that if anyone professes to be a prophet speaking as a manifestation of the breath of God and their "prophecy" says that Jesus is or should be under YHVH's "ban" then they are not truly speaking by the breath of God but rather by the breath of the ruler of the KOSMOU (which I tentatively take to be either the high priest (as the ) or the Satan - probably the high priest who acted as and under the control of the Satan). The "ban" is the curse that God promised would fall on those who did not return to the God of their fathers (Abraham, Isaac and Jakob) but instead rejected their Messiah:

[Mal 4:4-6 NASB] 4 "Remember the law of Moses My servant, even the statutes and ordinances which I commanded him in Horeb for all Israel. 5 "Behold, I am going to send you Elijah the prophet before the coming of the great and terrible day of the LORD. 6 "He will restore the hearts of the fathers to their children and the hearts of the children to their fathers [IE: "Abraham, Isaac..."], so that I will not come and smite the land with a curse."

It was not enough to be physically descended from Abraham; they had to be "of the faith of Abraham":

[Mat 3:7, 9 ASV] 7 But when he saw many of the Pharisees and Sadducees coming to his baptism, he said unto them, Ye offspring of vipers, who warned you to flee from the wrath to come? ... 9 and think not to say within yourselves, We have Abraham to our father: for I say unto you, that God is able of these stones to raise up children unto Abraham.

[Rom 4:11 ASV] 11 and he received the sign of circumcision, a seal of the righteousness of the faith which he had while he was in uncircumcision: that he might be the father of all them that believe, though they be in uncircumcision, that righteousness might be reckoned unto them;

KURIOS

So that is the prevailing context of our verse. So in this context, what does KURIOS mean?

IF it refers to the title that Jesus received because of his obedience to God to such a degree that he went all the way to his death at the "hands" of the Jews via Pilate:

[Phl 2:8-11 ASV] 8 and being found in fashion as a man, he humbled himself, becoming obedient [IE: to God] even unto death, yea, the death of the cross. 9 Wherefore also God highly exalted him, and gave unto him the name [IE: the "title"] which is above every name [IE: the "title"]; 10 that in the name [IE: the "title"] of Jesus every knee should bow, of things in heaven and things on earth and things under the earth, 11 and that every tongue should confess that Jesus Christ is Lord, to the glory of God the Father.

IF it refers to the title "YHVH" then it still says that God "gave him the title":

[Exo 23:21 ASV] 21 Take ye heed before him, and hearken unto his voice; provoke him not; for he will not pardon your transgression: for my name is in him.

[1Ki 9:3 ASV] 3 And Jehovah said unto him, I have heard thy prayer and thy supplication, that thou hast made before me: I have hallowed this house, which thou hast built, to put my name there for ever; and mine eyes and my heart shall be there perpetually.

[1Ki 11:36 ASV] 36 And unto his son will I give one tribe, that David my servant may have a lamp alway before me in Jerusalem, the city which I have chosen me to put my name there.

[2Ki 21:7 ASV] 7 And he set the graven image of Asherah, that he had made, in the house of which Jehovah said to David and to Solomon his son, In this house, and in Jerusalem, which I have chosen out of all the tribes of Israel, will I put my name for ever;

[2Ch 33:7 ASV] 7 And he set the graven image of the idol, which he had made, in the house of God, of which God said to David and to Solomon his son, In this house, and in Jerusalem, which I have chosen out of all the tribes of Israel, will I put my name for ever:

So what does that mean? That means that when David sat down in his throne he was sitting on YHVH's throne:

[1Ki 1:17 ASV] 17 And she said unto him, My lord, thou swarest by Jehovah thy God unto thy handmaid, saying, Assuredly Solomon thy son shall reign after me, and he shall sit upon my throne.

[1Ki 1:30 ASV] 30 verily as I sware unto thee by Jehovah, the God of Israel, saying, Assuredly **Solomon thy son shall reign after me, and he shall sit upon my throne in my stead; verily so will I do this day.

And so on...

Solomon, because he sat in YHVH's throne (and wielded his scepter) the God of Israel presided through Solomon. Hence, Psalm 45 addresses Solomon:

[Psa 45:6 ASV] 6 Thy throne, O God, is for ever and ever: A sceptre of equity is the sceptre of thy kingdom.

Solomon is a type of "the Ruler of Peace" (IE: the Messiah):

[Rev 3:21 KJV] 21 To him that overcometh will I grant to sit with me in my throne, even as I also overcame, and am set down with my Father in his throne.

So no matter how you slice it Jesus is only KURIOS to the degree that he draws his authority from his God and Father:

[Jhn 5:43 KJV] 43 I am come in my Father's name, and ye receive me not: if another shall come in his own name, him ye will receive.

KURIOS is above every other title that is applied legitimately to men but he answers to HIS God, which is also the one who begat him.

[2Co 11:31 KJV] 31 The God and Father of our Lord [KURIOS] Jesus Christ, which is blessed for evermore, knoweth that I lie not.

[Eph 1:3 KJV] 3 Blessed be the God and Father of our Lord [KURIOS] Jesus Christ, who hath blessed us with all spiritual blessings in heavenly places in Christ:

[1Pe 1:3 KJV] 3 Blessed be the God and Father of our Lord [KURIOS] Jesus Christ, which according to his abundant mercy hath begotten us again unto a lively hope by the resurrection of Jesus Christ from the dead,

[1Co 11:3 KJV] 3 But I would have you know, that the head of every man is Christ; and the head of the woman is the man; and the head of Christ is God.

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As I understand it, the Jewish people say Adonai (which can be translated Lord) when reading the Tetragrammaton, but I don't think it's ever written as a substitute; only spoken. (Not researched sorry).

I think this book is written in the early Christian culture, which was diverging from the Jewish culture, so it may be that 'the new way' is to write it. There is no Tetragrammaton in Greek, so perhaps writing Lord like this is the Greek equivalent.


Looking through the uses of κύριος in the new testament:

http://www.blueletterbible.org/lang/lexicon/lexicon.cfm?Strongs=G2962&t=KJV

Throughout the book of Matthew it's mostly used to refer to Jesus, secondly to God the father, and thirdly used in parables (probably still referring to God):

In the below examples, κύριος is followed by G2962 (the strongs number).

  • God - Mat 1:24 - Then Joseph being raised from sleep did as the angel of the Lord G2962 had bidden him, and took unto him his wife:
  • Jesus - Mat 8:2 - And, behold, there came a leper and worshipped him, saying, Lord, G2962 if thou wilt, thou canst make me clean.
  • Parable - Mat 10:24 - The disciple is not above his master, nor the servant above his lord. G2962

I read through the first page of the above link, and couldn't find any other uses of the word. I checked a few verses on each of the remaining pages. From what I've seen, the word κύριος is only used to refer to God the father, or Jesus throughout the New Testament.

If anyone has the time and inclination to go through all the verses and double check, even if there are one or two that do not refer to God or Jesus, I think it's plain that the writers of the New Testament are saying that Jesus and God the Father are one, as they both share the same title 'The Lord' throughout the collection of books.

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    Matt 6:24; 10:24-25; 13:27; 18:25-34 would be some immediate examples of places where κύριος is not a direct address/ title being given to God (Father, Son or Spirit) that spring to mind and there are more. – Jonathan Chell Feb 21 '15 at 12:28
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    Matiu - your answers are not off-base. They are just too loose. A more aggressive approach would be to take the comment of Jesus in reference to David who "in the Spirit" referred to the LORD saying to my Lord (Matthew 22:43). That kind of analysis would be more "tight" from a grammatical perspective and thus not so loosey-goosey. Again, your observations are valid and relevant, but they are too loose (not to mention the lack of any references, since we all know that someone somewhere sometime has already looked at this issue and done some research of some sort). Thanks. – Joseph Feb 21 '15 at 15:36
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    Thanks @Joseph - I thought I'd put an answer, all be it loose, rather than nothing at all. I guess I should be motivated to be more rigorous though. – matiu Feb 23 '15 at 10:55
  • Mat 6:24 - parable, where κύριος refers to God. 10:24-25 - same. Jesus is teaching his disciples. Though he says master in the general sense, it's plain that he's referring to himself. It's true that they're not directly referring to the trinity, but they are plainly referring to them. – matiu Feb 23 '15 at 10:59
  • @matiu In my many years of studying the scriptures I've never come across a single reference to the Trinity; not even the "Johannine Comma". What version are you using? – Ruminator Jan 14 '19 at 20:40

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