John 20:17a:

Jesus said, "Do not hold on to me, for I have not yet returned to the Father."

Why did Jesus tell Mary not to "hold on to" Him? Presumably it was not a problem with touching, since Jesus told Thomas to touch Him. Was it a gender issue?

I know Jesus said, "for I have not yet returned to the Father" but I don't understand why that should prohibit physical contact.

  • FYI Jesus didn't return to the Father at all. No authentic biblical text says he 'went back' or 'returned'. These concepts have been added to suggest that he came 'from heaven' to begin with - which he did not..
    – steveowen
    Jul 30 '20 at 5:38
  • See for what cling means: hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/questions/57189/…
    – Perry Webb
    Mar 30 '21 at 23:15

Not a Gender Issue

He allowed a sinful woman to wash his feet before with her tears and hair, which was rather inappropriate for her to do particularly at a dinner she wasn't invited to.

One of the Pharisees asked Jesus to have dinner with him, so Jesus went to his home and sat down to eat. When a certain immoral woman from that city heard he was eating there, she brought a beautiful alabaster jar filled with expensive perfume. Then she knelt behind him at his feet, weeping. Her tears fell on his feet, and she wiped them off with her hair. Then she kept kissing his feet and putting perfume on them. —Luke 7:36-38

Moreover, in general all of the details the Bible gives are important. If this was a gender issue, it would be of little to no theological significance.

The Theological Reason

After Jesus' resurrection, his relation to his disciples changed. They don't recognize him right away in several cases, and in the book of Revelation John has a very different experience of him than leaning on his chest as at the last supper.

When I saw him, I fell at his feet as if I were dead. —Revelation 1:17

Jesus had already told them that when he went to be with the father, he would send another comforter, the Holy Spirit. Thus, even though they had a short period where they sometimes got to see him in his physical body, they were right on the edge of the inauguration of the Holy Spirit's administration of Christ to them. They were about to begin participating in Christ in a deeper, more spiritual way. Thus, the physical affection that they had showed him was no longer appropriate.

Thomas of course touched him in a different way for a different reason—and not in a way or for a reason that he would have done before the crucifixion; it was part of specific purpose of his appearances to them during that time (bearing witness to the resurrection).


Also, the idea of clinging here more than likely does not have a purely physical sense. In John 14 (and the following chapters), Jesus had already had a prolonged discussion with the disciples about him returning to the Father, during which time they expressed great sadness in spite of his insisting that it was better for them. This verse is best viewed in light of that passage; they ought not to cling to him yet, but to cling to him spiritually after he returns to the Father.

  • 1
    I don't agree that, "the physical affection that they had showed him was no longer appropriate". However, I do think you've hit on something with not clinging to Him, because He had to go to be with His Father. So I'll accept this but also have a nagging feeling this issue could be explored further. May 21 '12 at 10:11


There are generally 3 views held for this question:

  1. Jesus spoke to Mary, acting, as it were, as the High Priest fulfilling the Day of Atonement (Lev. 16). Having accomplished the sacrifice, He was on His way to present the blood in heaven (after being in the heart of the earth 3 days), and, between the meeting with Mary in the garden and the meeting of Mt. 28:9, He had so ascended and returned—a view in harmony with types.

  2. That Mary was gently rebuked by Christ in the command "Touch me not" (literally, "Stop clinging to me"). The lord taught Mary that now she must not seek t hold Him to the earth but, rather, become his messenger of new Joy

  3. That he merely meant: "Do not detain me now; I have not yet ascended; you will see me again; run rather to my brethren," etc

None of these suppose that the command was given to Mary specifically because she was a woman.


I don't believe it had anything to do with gender. Jesus had nothing against Mary; there was definitely a different issue involved. I've heard an interesting reasoning for this, but I'm not a scholar and I haven't done enough study on it. Some say that it has to do with Jesus' physical nature after the resurrection, that He was physically something other than what our bodies are now.

Is it possible that this is emotional? That the first person that Jesus wanted to embrace or touch him, was in fact, the Heavenly Father? The Father turned his back on him on the cross, which would make sense that now that the sins of the world were paid for, he would want to reunite with his Father, fully embracing him and taking his rightful place on the throne. Just a thought; I definitely could be wrong.

  • Thanks for this. I don't think it has to do with His resurrection body because Thomas had permission to touch Him. May 3 '12 at 20:16

John 20:17 (NKJV)

Jesus said to her, “Do not cling to Me, for I have not yet ascended to My Father; but go to My brethren and say to them, ‘I am ascending to My Father and your Father, and to My God and your God.’”

Why did Jesus tell Mary Magdalene to stop clinging to him?

Mary evidently clung to Jesus because she thought that he was about to ascend to heaven and she would never see him again. To assure her that he was not yet leaving, Jesus told her to stop clinging to him but instead to go and give his disciples the news of his resurrection.

Jesus shows compassion to the sick.

  • In Mark 7:32-36 he puts his fingers into the man’s ears and, after spitting, touches the man’s tongue.

  • In Luke 22:48 he asks Judas, "Do you betray me with a kiss?"

  • In Matthew 20:32-34 (NKJV)

    32So Jesus stood still and called them, and said, “What do you want Me to do for you?”
    33They said to Him, “Lord, that our eyes may be opened.” 34 So Jesus had compassion and touched their eyes. And immediately their eyes received sight, and they followed Him.

  • In Mark 1:40-41 (NASB)

    40And a leper came to Jesus, beseeching Him and falling on his knees before Him, and saying, “If You are willing, You can make me clean.” 41Moved with compassion, Jesus stretched out His hand and touched him, and said to him, “I am willing; be cleansed.”

  • In Luke 8:42-48 (NIV) he expressed warmth and feeling for the woman who had a bleeding ailment that could not be healed.

    48 ... “Daughter, your faith has healed you. Go in peace.”

  • I have edited to format the quotes appropriately.
    – enegue
    Aug 20 '17 at 9:11

After reading all these explanations, I need to bring some clarity to this statement made to Mary by Jesus on "Resurrection morning." This statement by Jesus is the "core" or the objective of Christianity. Mary obedience (not clinging to Jesus) before He ascended to the Father, is the hope of a "Resurrection life" to all who are called and chosen by the Father. • The answer as follows: 1. Jesus is seen hear as the "Firstfruit of the Resurrection." The first to be "Resurrected" from the dead with His new body (glorified body), Who now abolished death and brought life (eternal life) and "immortality" to light [2 Tim. 1:10]. 2. Jesus being the "Firstfruit of the Resurrection," have to now make a "holy" (undefile; pure; set apart from defilement) presentation of His glorified body to the Father, honoring the Father with the "firstfruit" (His glorified and immortal body) [Prov. 3:9-10]. 3. This holy convocation (undefiled, pure, free from any form of human contamination) presentation of Jesus to the Father, with His (resurrected, glorified, immortal body), was a representation of the harvest (a redeem people, Christ's Church), who the Father would receive, which is yet to come after the establishment of Christ's Church. [Rom. 11:16] "For if the firstfruit be Holy, the lump is also holy: and if the root be Holy, so are the branches." 4. But in this order: [1 Cor. 15:20-23] "But now is Christ risen from the dead, and become the first fruits of them that slept (asleep, have died). For since by man came death, by man came also the resurrection of the dead. For as in Adam all die, even so in Christ shall all be made alive. But every man in his order: Christ the firstfruits; afterward they that are Christ's at his coming."

My closing statement:

After Jesus ascended to heaven being the "Firstfruits of the Resurrection", making a holy representative presentation of the harvest to God (those promised eternal life, immortality, God's firstfruits), consecrating them. He decended on the evening of that said resurrection day [Jn. 20:19-20] and showed His disciples His hands and His side. Paul mentioned to our Philippians brethren: [Phil. 3:20-21] "For our conversation (citizenship) is in heaven; from whence we look for the Savior, the Lord Jesus Christ: Who shall change our vile body, that it may be fashioned like unto his glorious body, according to the working whereby he is able even to subdue all things unto himself." • The Father after receiving the undefiled "Firstfruits" representative presentation of His intended harvest (Christ's Church) by Jesus, sent the "First fruits of His Spirit" (the Holy Spirit), into the lives of those who believed on the day of Pentecost [Acts. 2:1-4], fifty days after Jesus first ascension. Thus, establishing the Church era (resulting in the beginning of His harvest, the Church, the Firstfruits of the Resurrection), to receive at the appearing of Jesus [1 Cor. 15:51-57;1 Thess. 4:13-18], corruptible putting on in corruption, mortal putting on immortality at the sound of the Trumpet of God.

Blessings (The Slayer).

  • -1 Thank you for contributing. However, that is a very long answer to a simple question, and it sounds more like a sermon that is off-topic. Please keep your answers short and to the point.
    – Steve11235
    Apr 15 '20 at 18:15

When the high priest sprinkled blood onto the arc in the holy of holies, the blood was accepted by the Father. When Jesus came out of the grave he had to ascend to the Father and have His sacrifice accepted which the Father did. He didn't want Mary touching him before He ascended

  • 1
    sorry I didn't see the answer by wiibeeler before I posted this. It's the same answer Jul 5 '15 at 0:26
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    – Tau
    Jul 12 '15 at 8:32

Could it simply be Mary was clinging to the physical idea of Jesus and he was no longer that, he was risen and glorified. I mean if Jesus could appear in a closed room to his disciples, how would Mary prevent him from seeing his father by clinging to him. I understand it could be a holiness thing about presenting himself to his Father but at that point she would have already touched him and made him unclean.


(Possibly, Until Jesus went to the Father He did not want to be touched because those touching Him were corrupt (Dead). In the Old Testament it was forbidden to touch the dead. Once He completed His assertion than it would be different. Or He was telling her I’ll be back but don’t hold me here because I have to this first. It’s an interesting passage.

  • We are dead in our trespasses . So could He have not wanted her to touch Him until the resurrection had been completed?
    – Lynn Perry
    Apr 26 '21 at 2:08
  • 1
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    Apr 26 '21 at 3:50

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