An interesting question
“but wrath has come upon them to the uttermost.” [NKJV] is the most difficult statement in this passage to understand and is open to several interpretations.
In Paul's writings God’s wrath is predominantly an eschatological event. Evil done by Jews or Gentiles earns God’s wrath, which will be executed on the day of wrath, (Rom 2:5). Often he presents that fate is only avoidable by faith in the Lord Jesus Christ (Rom 5:9, 1 Thess 1:10; 5:9)
However Paul also speaks of the wrath of God being manifested before that final day, even through pagan agency (Rom 1:18; 13:4–5). So, Paul's use of the wrath of God does not provide conclusive evidence.
So what was the wrath “that has come upon” the Jews?
The aorist verb "ἔφθασεν" would appear to refer to an actual event Paul was interpreting as a manifestation of divine wrath. However he could have been referring to several events:
1) He could have had reference to the fall of Jerusalem,67 the expulsion of Jews from Rome by Claudius (Acts 18:2),
2) the famine of A.D. 46 (Acts 11:28),
3) or other events.
The Greek behind “at last” or "uttermost" (εἰς τέλος) is also problematic. If the sentence is translated assuming a terrible event had befallen the Jews, then “at last” is appropriate. This temporal use of εἰς τέλος is also implied by the parallel structures of v. 16b and v. 16c; that is, a temporal “always” calls for a temporal “at last.”
The alternative translation “uttermost” or “forever”/ "fully" is lexically possible and would indicate the translators assumption that the wrath Paul is speaking about here is an eschatological event not a temporal one. The resultant meaning being that wrath had accrued to the Jews in anticipation of the end, when God’s judgement will fall on all who persist in disobedience. Such a reading allows for a temporal meaning of τέλος and avoids presuming that Paul was referring to some unnamed tragedy.
So the answer I would give is 'Yes it is possible, but we are not given enough information by Paul to be definite'
I would just add that if Paul was referring to some tragedy that had befallen the Jewish opponents of the gospel, it would appear that he would have considered that disaster as a foretaste of the judgement awaiting them at the ultimate day of wrath.