I don't know Greek and even less about rules of Greek grammar. Can somebody please help me by reviewing a statement written by a popular Unitarian?
Thomas answered and said to Him, “My Lord and my God!* - John, 20:28, NASB
Thomas' words to Jesus in Greek literally read, "the Lord of me and the God of me." In Greek this is how one would refer to two persons. If one wanted to refer to one person he would say, "the Lord and God of me." This is confirmed by the first and Sixth Granville Sharp rules. However, Trinitarians make a convenient exception to the sixth rule for this particular verse. There are actually TWO important things to see here. First, there is the fact that both nouns, (1) Lord, and (2) God, are each qualified by the definition [sic] article ('the'). Second, both nouns, (1) Lord, and (2) God, are qualified by the words "of me." This is also telling. Thomas could have said, "the Lord and the God of me." But he did not.
I think it's good if it's read in context of his article, quoted from "The Trinity Delusion" website.
As much as I checked I think he's wrong. He doesn't have a good knowledge of Greek. I checked around 15 sources (commentaries and books defending the Trinity), and most of them don't even discuss if this is correct reading. Around 5 said that Greek is clear.
What is going on with this verse in Greek, and does he correctly represent the rules?