The phrase, “shall be made alive” (ζῳοποιηθήσονται) in 1 Corinthians 15:22 stems from the use of zOopoieO, as a verb in the future tense. The future action of zOopoieO seems directed towards two orders mentioned in verse 23 and thus would be future to the time that 1 Corinthians was composed.
Indeed, at the composing of 1 Corinthians 15:20 Χριστῷ had been raised (perfect tense) and was considered as firstfruit of those still sleeping. Verse 21 provides a comparison between “death by man” and “resurrection by man”. Verse 22 carries on with a comparison between the dying that occurs “in the Adam” and those who shall be made alive “in the Christ”. The dying in the Adam is a present tense verb. The made alive in the Christ is a future tense verb, thus my question. In verse 23 the first group to be "made alive" is identified as ἀπαρχὴ χριστός (aparchE christos) and the second group is “in the presence (parousia) of Him”.
I am working with an understanding that ἔπειτα of verse 23 is separating two groups, in time, each which “shall be alive” (ζῳοποιηθήσονται) in a time future to the composing of 1 Corinthians. One group, ἀπαρχὴ χριστός (aparchE christos), shall be ζῳοποιηθήσονται prior to ἔπειτα and is a part of πάντες (of verse 22). The next group, οἱ τοῦ Χριστοῦ ἐν τῇ παρουσίᾳ αὐτου (the-ones of-the christos in the presence of-him), shall be ζῳοποιηθήσονται after ἔπειτα and is likewise a part of πάντες (of verse 22).
Looking elsewhere in the new testament for the future tense use of zOopoieO brings forth one other occurrence in Romans 8:11. The action in this verse seems to be at some point in the future to the actual composing of Romans and is applicable to being “made alive” in mortal bodies.