In Genesis 3:16 we read about God's curse on the woman:
To the woman He said,
“I will greatly multiply
Your pain in childbirth,
In pain you will bring forth children;
Yet your desire will be for your husband,
And he will rule over you.”
I have heard the "desire" explained as an antagonist usurping sort of drive, which makes sense to me both exegetically and empirically. If we take that as a given (for this question), I'm wondering about the next statement, that "he will rule over you". How was this meant to be taken? Possibilities:
Negatively; as part of the curse the man would now Lord his authority over the woman and/or God was now giving man a more oppressive role in her life.
Neutrally; just as the first part of the curse presents two related concepts with the first being the judgment and the second a mere clarifying descriptor, so also the second half presents the verdict of an evil desire to usurp, with a clarifying descriptor that the man would [still] be in charge, despite this jealousy.
Positively; the woman would desire to usurp the man, but by God's grace the man would serve to squelch this rebellious tendency by "ruling over" the rebellion. "Ruling" is not inherently evil, as this was man's charge prior to sin entering in.
I would love it if your answer could contain a rebuttal of the opposing views I mentioned above.