In Exo. 2:12, it is written,
12 So he looked this way and that way, and when he saw no one, he killed the Egyptian and hid him in the sand. NKJV, 1982
יב וַיִּפֶן כֹּה וָכֹה וַיַּרְא כִּי אֵין אִישׁ וַיַּךְ אֶת-הַמִּצְרִי וַיִּטְמְנֵהוּ בַּחוֹל
Black’s Law Dictionary defines “murder” as:
The crime committed where a person of sound mind and discretion (that is, of sufficient age to form and execute a criminal design and not legally “insane”) kills any human creature in being (excluding quick but unborn children) and in the peace of the state or nation (including all persons except the military forces of the public enemy in time of war or battle) without any warrant, justification, or excuse in law. with malice aforethought, express or implied, that is, with a deliberate purpose or a design or determination distinctly formed in the mind before the commission of the act, provided that death results from the injury Inflicted within one year and a day after its infliction.
(I understand the above definition is modern, and thus its application to the time of Moses could be anachronistic, but I don't believe the biblical definition of murder is any different than our modern one, hence my question. For those who believe otherwise, perhaps you could specify how our modern definition of murder is different than the biblical definition.)
Did Moses commit murder?