According to Matthew 1:23, Isaiah 7:14 is a reference to the Lord Jesus Christ. However, Isaiah 7:15 (NET) reads:

He will eat sour milk and honey, which will help him know how to reject evil and choose what is right (Isaiah 7:15, NET, emphasis mine).

To whom does this verse refer? If this text refers to the boy Jesus, would it be true, as Mark Driscoll said in a sermon, that Jesus made ​​mistakes as he increased in wisdom and in stature, though he never sinned?


3 Answers 3


Isaiah 7:11 makes it clear that this boy's birth will be a sign to King Ahaz. The boy would be named Immanuel, meaning "God with us," so Ahaz would know God had not abandoned his people, and would deliver them from the armies that were poised to attack. According to verse 14, the boy's mother was already pregnant when Isaiah and Ahaz had this conversation, so Isaiah was not referring to Jesus in this passage.

However, Matthew, writing several centuries later, saw the birth of a child as a sign, saw the parallel with Jesus' life, and applied this passage to Jesus--who, in Christian theology, is "God with us" in the fullest sense. (Matthew often uses passages from the Hebrew Bible this way. For example Hosea 11:1 speaks of God calling his "son" Israel out of Egypt. Matthew applies this text to Jesus as well, when Joseph and Mary take Jesus to Egypt to escape Herod, then return after Herod's death.) But what Matthew has identified is not the primary meaning of this text, and the passage as a whole should not be understood as a description of Jesus.

  • 1
    FYI your answer here triggered another question. Thanks for the idea!
    – Susan
    Aug 21, 2014 at 21:19
  • This sounds precisely like "taking a verse out of context" Mar 26 at 22:20

The passage appears to be an unambiguous reference to Eliakim the son of Hilkiah, if and when the complete unity of the entire Book of Isaiah is assumed.


Isaiah 7:14 KJV "Therefore the Lord himself SHALL give you a SIGN; BEHOLD A virgin SHALL conceive and bear a son and shall call his name Immanuel."

Google: the traditional rule is that shall is used with first person pronouns to form the FUTURE tense. For example "I shall be late."

Where in verse 14 does it says that the child was already born in the present? When "behold" and "shall" speaks of the future? In relation to that

VERSE 16 NLT "for before the child is that old, the land of the two kings you fear so much will both be deserted."

These speaks of king syria and israel has already been crushed by an enemy and obviously not in the present as it is spoken where these two kings still lives

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