This answer is long, so you will need to read everything, then decide if I am correct or have a reasonable point of view.
Lets start with taking the Christian historical standpoint that the Bible is inerrant and that these are not falsely presented words. Let's accept that God is sovereign and capable of preserving his Words exactly the way He intended it to be as demonstrated repeatedly through Archeology not forgetting the Dead Sea Scrolls. Lets also accept that God is a god of harmony and law, not of chaos, and that all scripture is God-breathed, but authored through people with perspectives.
Next, lets ensure the internal integrity of the scripture by comparing it to similar scripture in 1 Timothy 2:12. From that, we can see that this line of thinking is repetitive in different letters. The different letters go to the cities of Corinth and Ephesus, which are Greek cities.
Let's dismiss 1 Peter 3 as discussion regarding Wives and Husbands, not female roles in the church.
Now, let's review whether there were any worship leadership roles by women in Biblical history: We have Miriam, Deborah, Esther pre-Christ and Lydia, Phoebe, and Priscilla were Paul's contemporaries. Furthermore, if women were to be silent regarding religious matters, why then, are the first to learn of the Gospel as recorded in Matthew 28, the women, Mary and Martha? Why is a divine messenger sent to them who are later forbidden to speak to a congregation? Was it so they could speak with Peter and John but never to a group?
Next lets look at how Paul views the old laws: let me paraphrase: that the majority of them have passed away in favor of freedom through Christ and that old rituals are now unnecessary and that food sacrificed to idols and pig meat is fine to eat.
So, is the Bible then divided about whether women should have leadership roles and speak in the church, was Paul double-minded, and by our own utterance, is God double-minded? If no, then what is the reason for these passages aka why were the written and what do they mean today?
Let's start with Women in Roman Society. Women of Ancient Rome could not vote/hold public office/were forbidden to make speeches in public.. So that was the basic law of the land... however, various areas of the empire were given governors and officials to enforce that area's laws. A lot of leeway was given to Israel for their religious practices, but as we can see that didn't last forever, eventually Rome tired of their rebellions.
The point of the Gospel and Jesus's life were not to undermine human-made governments but rather to save people from their sins. However, Peter and John are told by the Sanhedrin to stop speaking about Jesus and say that they will do what God has told them to do rather than what men tell them to do.
These churches were located in modern day Greece and Turkey. The Greco-Roman world strived to take gods and goddesses and Hellenize them. Furthermore, the City States of Greece had different privileges for women depending on which City you were in. For example, in Sparta, women could train like men and own land; but in other places women had no rights. However, we know that in Athens: women were denied a political voice and civic rights outside of their participation in religious activities.
So, now looking directly at Ephesus because of 1 Timothy 2:12, what was Ephesus like? The temple of Diana/Artemis was located in Ephesus. The Ephesian Artemis was worshiped for fertility and we know that women were priestesses of Artemis from documentation such as the cult of Artemis at Brauron, but that doesn't mean specifically the Ephesian priestesses were chaste, and with its correlation and discussion in Ephesians 5:3 we see that the Ephesians may have the same problems that the Corinthians had at some level. Furthermore, we know from Acts 19, that there is a religious war raging in Ephesus at this time.
Also, we note from Timothy 2:11-12 that Paul uses First Person not the Lord, possibly implying he is talking about his personal opinion at the time for that congregation in that scenario, and the following verse Timothy 2:13 is the hint to the answer to the riddle of why: Adam was first formed then Eve, and Adam was not deceived, but Eve was. This verse implies the direction I'd like to bring this, which is that these Artemis/Greek/Cult priestesses and women who were interested in taking an active role in society in one of the only ways there were normally allowed in some places were not well educated in regards to these religious matters and were bringing deceptive teachings (the fruit symbolized by the fall) and Hellenized ideals into the church. To solve the issue, Paul tells Timothy, just don't let them take these roles, let them teach their children, possibly implying to leave this to the children's generation to decide again... and to the Corinthians (yet to be discussed and as further proof): follow the laws (of which we see no biblical laws forbidding women to speak in the Bible as finally culminated in 382 at the Council of Rome).
1 Corinthians 14:33-37 Paul continues by saying that God is a god of Peace, not disorder, leading into discussing women. Should a woman's marital status alone prevent her speech? Not unless, the Law of the Country said so... and then why not? Because each family was given a vote through the men, and if a woman had no family, she may be able to speak through her husband, but a woman without a husband had no one to speak through. Thus we can interpret gynaikes to be wives. With all the effort put into widows by the church, why should they be left without a voice to the congregation? We could also interpret gynaikes to be women... and then why would the women in the churches of Corinth be forbidden to speak? The temple of Aphrodite was in Acrocorinth, aka Corinth, and Strabo quotes: 'Not for every man is the voyage to Korinthos." A huge issue for the Corinthians was the sexual immorality and the control women could exert over men through those sexual impulses and promises. Some of the women of Corinth were dressed in such a way that Paul calls it to account in both 1 Timothy 2:9-10 and Corinthians 11:5-6,10; in fact allegedly, women without their head coverings were stating their unwillingness to submit to their husbands or possibly even promiscuity. The fact that Hellenization was a real thing, the disorder in worship, the spiritual warfare that was occurring in these cities, and the sexual immorality of this church led to Paul's letter to the Corinthian churches forbidding women to be in leadership in the church and admonishing silence to those not called upon to speak or share their prophecy.
Simply put: the letter to them meant regaining an orderly service, where perhaps a priestess of Aphrodite or a woman without education was not trying to teach them through the lens of her experiences, wearing what amounts today as a short-cut scarlet dress in a manner that was similar to Potifer's wife. Paul offered a Roman government sanctioned way to prevent a huge revolt over it, because women were allowed to participate in Greek religious activities. I've provided the scripture, I've provided the world history, I've provided the logic, I've provided the theory.