In 1 Corinthians 7:2, Paul uses two separate Greek words for “own.”
“But because of the temptation to sexual immorality, each man should have his own [idios] wife and each woman her own [heautou] husband.”
Do you think there is a reason why Paul uses separate terms, given that they both essentially mean the same thing?
In fact, there is only one word in 1 Cor 7:2 that means "own" which is ἴδιον (idion). Let me translate the verse very literally:
Because, however, the sexual immorality, each [man] the of himself wife let have; and each [woman] the own husband let have.
In more idiomatic English I would render this (still literally)
However, because of sexual immorality, let each man have the wife of himself; and let each woman have her own husband.
Thus, the adjective ἴδιον (idion) occurs only once.
