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What are the most widely-accepted scholarly interpretations of Rev 1:7 and Rev 1:12-16 and what actual arguments have been made to defend those interpretations?

I have been investigating this for awhile, but am still dumbfounded as to why few if any scholars read these verses in what seems to me to be the most simple and straightforward way. And I haven't been able to locate any attempts to defend the more traditional interpretations.

In Revelation 1:7, the figure is pierced and tribes of the earth are mourning for him. This seems to me like a quite strong reason to think that the author of this part of Revelation intends for us to understand the figure in the clouds as dead. Not merely previously dead and previously resurrected, but actually dead and not yet resurrected at the time he's seen in the clouds.

I've read one commentary that said the tribes are mourning for themselves, out of fear of coming judgement. What in the context of Revelation itself, or in any of the Hebrew sources Revelation alludes to, would lead anyone to think that? To me "for themselves" looks a silly apologetical response just to avoid difficulties the verse potentially poses (since the gospels don't have Jesus killed in the sky). In the OT people mourning for someone seems to always indicate that said person has died. Since, Revelation appears to be built from allusions to the OT, I would think that important here. Also, that John is using the tribes mourning to indicate that the figure in the clouds is dead comes from how Rev 1:7 quotes Zechariah 12:10-12 wherein we see mention of mourning over the death of Josiah; to take the mourning to have a different function in Revelation from what it does in Zechariah just seems weird to me.

Have any scholars offered any explanations for why the figure in Rev 1:12-16 glows step-by-step brighter and brighter before John's visionary eyes?

The progression starts with "hair as wool" revised midsentence to "as snow". Then the eyes glow like a flame, followed by the feet glowing like dripping bronze bright white in a furnace. And finally the vision ends with his whole appearance shining like the sun in full power.

To me, the most simple and obvious explanation for the progressively increasing glowing is that John is supposedly seeing the figure actively being resurrected, transfigured, and/or otherwise transformed. Note that verse 15 changes "sound of a multitude" (found in the source passages in Daniel), into "sound of many waters" (used in Ezekiel in a different way), most likely because in Revelation water repeatedly symbolizes life. Verse 16 has the sword that pierced him ejected out of his mouth (similar to how frogs are ejected from the mouths of the dragon, beast, and false prophet later in Rev 16:13.) And, Rev 1:17-18 looks to me as intended to explain what John had just seen in Rev 1:7,12-16, the key part being "I died, and behold I am alive forevermore." It all fits with a resurrection.

But I don't think this is how scholars normally read these verses.

So again, what are the currently most widely-accepted scholarly interpretations of Rev 1:7 and Rev 1:12-16? What arguments have been presented to defend those interpretations?

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The phrase "coming in the clouds" (or very similar) achieves an almost technical meaning in the NT denoting the second coming of Jesus:

  • Matt 24:30 - At that time the sign of the Son of Man will appear in heaven, and all the tribes of the earth will mourn. They will see the Son of Man coming on the clouds of heaven, with power and great glory.
  • Matt 26:64 - “You have said it yourself,” Jesus answered. “But I say to all of you, from now on you will see the Son of Man sitting at the right hand of Power and coming on the clouds of heaven.”
  • Mark 13:26 - And then will they see the Son of Man coming in the clouds with great power and glory.
  • Mark 14:62 - “I am,” said Jesus, “and you will see the Son of Man sitting at the right hand of Power and coming with the clouds of heaven.”
  • Luke 21:27 - At that time they will see the Son of Man coming in a cloud with power and great glory.

It is on the basis of Jesus' own words that Rev 1:7 is interpreted in a similar fashion:

  • Rev 1:7 - Behold, He is coming with the clouds, and every eye will see Him—even those who pierced Him. And all the tribes of the earth will mourn because of Him. So shall it be! Amen.

This idea is expanded upon in Rev 6:15-17 when we see the wicked lament the sight of the Lamb upon the throne:

Then the kings of the earth, the nobles, the commanders, the rich, the mighty, and every slave and free man hid in the caves and among the rocks of the mountains. And they said to the mountains and the rocks, “Fall on us and hide us from the face of the One seated on the throne, and from the wrath of the Lamb. For the great day of Their wrath has come, and who is able to withstand it?”

That is, the wicked tribes of the earth morn for fear of their impending doom.

By contrast, we have the prophecy of the reaction of the righteous to the same event:

Isa 25:7 - And in that day it will be said, “Surely this is our God; we have waited for Him, and He has saved us. This is the LORD for whom we have waited. Let us rejoice and be glad in His salvation.”

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  • Thank you. And I agree that is where scholars are coming from, although I still think it's a weak argument, as Revelation may well be doing something different with Dan 7:13 than what the gospels later did with it. We need an argument better based more on internal evidence in Revelation itself, and not one that simply tries to force it into agreement with other literature. Commented Sep 10 at 18:53
  • Why do those gospel passages not include the tribes mourning after seeing the figure pierced? That's a red flag that they don't have the same idea in mind as John does in Revelation. Rev 6:15-17 never mentions κόπτω (mourning); hiding in fear is a totally different thing. Why doesn't John mention the tribes mourning again in Rev 14:14-20 or 19:11-21 if either is supposed to describe the same event as Rev 1:7? How do scholars actually explain Rev 1:7, "κόψονται ἐπ’ αὐτὸν" (mourning/beating FOR HIM), which is a frequent idiom that in the OT only ever uses when someone has died? Commented Sep 10 at 20:02
  • @WayneVanWeerthuizen - that is were we differ - Unless Revelation is tied to the other Biblical literature, its meaning is lost.
    – Dottard
    Commented Sep 10 at 21:30

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