Although I’ve read different interpretations of what was the actual sin of Sodom in Genesis 19 (homosexuality vs. various from inhospitality to rape), Jude provides a shockingly direct answer-“sexual immorality”(NIV). Or so I thought until reading Stong’s. It appears neither tack is right; fornication doesn’t readily fit with the intentions of the Sodomites outside of Lot’s door. Could the dissonance found with “fornication” be the reason that the translation favored the less-common meaning, “utterly unchaste”?
Jude 7 - just as Sodom and Gomorrah and the cities around them, having indulged in sexual immorality and having gone after strange flesh, in like manner with them are set forth as an example, undergoing the penalty of eternal fire.