-1

Exegetical question, try to stick with the immediate context with exposition. Cross-referencing cannot directly explain or deal with the exegesis of a particular context.

[Romans 3:20-28 BSB] 20Therefore no one - will be justified in His sight - by works of the law. For the law merely brings awareness of sin. 21But now, apart from the law, the righteousness of God has been revealed, as attested by the Law and the Prophets. 22And this righteousness from God comes through faith in Jesus Christ to all who believe. - There is no distinction, 23for all have sinned and fall short of the glory - of God, 24and are justified freely by His grace through the redemption that is in Christ Jesus. 25God presented Him - as the atoning sacrifice through - faith in His - blood, in order to demonstrate His - righteousness, because in - - His forbearance - He had passed over the sins committed beforehand. 26He did this - to demonstrate - His righteousness at the present time, so as - - to be just and to justify the one who has faith in Jesus. 27Where, then, is - boasting? It is excluded. On what principle? On that of works? No, but on that of faith. 28For we maintain that a man is justified by faith apart from works of the law.

G1432 δωρεάν dorean for the word "freely" means without cost, for nothing. This grace or gift is contrasted with the requirement of the law. Freely is a better translation than "gift". Is grace described as without the law of Moses or without the justice of God in this passage? What does Paul mean by justification freely by grace of God?

How should the freely be understood? Example:

  1. without Mosaic law works: no works of law required?
  2. without any moral law and justice of God: no repentance and change required?
  3. without having done anything to deserve Christ (Eph 2:8): undeserved grace?
1

6 Answers 6

1

The answer to this question about what is "free" in Rom 3:24 is contained in the immediately preceding verse; that is, Rom 3:24 is a summary of Paul's argument in Rom 3. Note the explicit statements:

  • V20 - Therefore no one will be justified in His sight by works of the law. For the law merely brings awareness of sin.
  • V21 - But now, apart from the law, the righteousness of God has been revealed, as attested by the Law and the Prophets.
  • V22 - And this righteousness from God comes through faith in Jesus Christ to all who believe.
  • V24 - and are justified [= made righteous] freely by His grace through the redemption that is in Christ Jesus.

That is, Paul makes several points about the free justification:

  • it is without works of the law; ie, sinners do not have to do something in order to be forgiven and made righteous
  • the righteousness comes from God; ie, NOT the sinner. This is essentially saying the same thing
  • That is, justification is achieved without works and from God and thus is "free".

The idea of justification be a free, underserved gift is taunght in many other places. Justification and salvation is liked to a “Gift” to convey the idea that atonement is absolutely free and the initiative of God. Rom 4:4, 5:15-17, 6:23, 2 Cor 9:14, 15, Eph 2:8, 3:7, Heb 6:4.

The best example I can think of to illustrate this free justification is given by Jesus on the cross when He said:

Then Jesus said, “Father, forgive them, for they do not know what they are doing.” And they divided up His garments by casting lots.

Note here that Jesus extended forgiveness to His tormentors who were neither Jews nor even requesting forgiveness!

Thus, the justification of God is truly "free". [Unfortunately, many will reject this free offer.]

Ellicott says this:

Freely.—Gratuitously, without exertion or merit on their part. (Comp. Matthew 10:8; Revelation 21:6; Revelation 22:17.)

Barnes:

Freely - δωρεὰν dōrean. This word stands opposed to what is purchased, or which is obtained by labor, or which is a matter of claim. It is a free, undeserved gift, not merited by our obedience to the Law, and not that to which we have any claim. The apostle uses the word here in reference to those who are justified. To them it is a mere undeserved gift, It does not mean that it has been obtained, however, without any price or merit from anyone, for the Lord Jesus has purchased it with his own blood, and to him it becomes a matter of justice that those who were given to him should be justified, 1 Corinthians 6:20; 1 Corinthians 7:23; 2 Peter 2:1; 1 Peter 2:9. (Greek). Acts 20:28; Isaiah 53:11. We have no offering to bring, and no claim. To us, therefore, it is entirely a matter of gift.

2
  • Jesus forgiving his tormentors is unrelated to the grace justification. Being merciful and forgiving is the trait always taught. Also Romans 3:34 is a typo error.
    – Michael16
    Oct 31, 2022 at 4:29
  • @Michael16 - thanks for pointing out the reference error. Now fixed.
    – Dottard
    Oct 31, 2022 at 6:03
4

It is God that justifieth, Romans 8:33. None other can do so. For God alone is righteous. For he, alone, is God, Isaiah 45:24.

It is God who calls (sinners to repentance) and God who justifies them, Romans 8:30.

God is right because he is God. None other can be right, for he alone is God.

What and whom God is : is right. It is 'rightness'. Nothing else can be 'right'.

That which is in alignment, in agreement, in sympathy with God and with his purposes and with his desires : is right. And nothing else is 'right'.

That which agrees with his purpose in creation. That which is in alignment with his ultimate purpose in creating humanity, that is to say in alignment with the New Creation, in alignment with God's redemption, in agreement with his salvation . . . . is right.

Nothing else can be right.

The tree of the knowledge of good and evil is not the way for humanity to live. It is a way of death, Genesis 2:17.

God alone is righteous : humanity believeth.

And Abraham believed God . . and there was evaluated to him unto righteousness. Genesis 15:6, Galatians 3:6, Romans 4:9, Romans 4:22, James 2:23.

Within Abraham's faith God saw his own righteousness (God's righteousness) and seeing that within Abraham was the righteousness of God, God logically evaluated that to Abraham.

It was not Abraham's righteousness. It was God's own righteousness. But it was attributed to Abraham unto (εισ) righteousness.

αβρααμ επιστευσεν τω θεω και ελογισθη αυτω εις δικαιοσυνην (Galatians 3:6 TR undisputed).

Those who see in the declaration of the gospel that God has demonstrated his own righteousness at Golgotha, eradicating sins by the sufferings of his own Son, and eradicating sin itself by the death of Jesus of Nazareth, they who see (in the gospel, for the gospel is the power of God unto salvation, Romans 1:16, for therein is the righteousness of God revealed) they who see the righteousness of God demonstrated therein and do so believe in God (as did Abraham) then it is logical, it is sensible, it is absolutely right that God should justify such persons.

And he does justify them. He does do so freely. Without the works of the law, Romans 3:28.

They are justified from all things, Acts 13:39.

By the law, this was impossible, Galatians 3:21. For the law saith : he that doeth them (the commandments) shall live in them, Galatians 3:12. But the law is not of faith, Galatians 3:12, again.

Faith believes God. Abraham believed God. And God freely justifies them who believe in him, Romans 3:24.

It would not be right to do otherwise.

For none is right, but God.

And it is he, himself who is our righteousness, as it is written 'The Lord our righteousness' Jeremiah 23:6.

He justifies the ungodly, who believe in him. And, believing, they receive the Holy Spirit, who works within them to will and to do the pleasure of the Father, Philippians 2:13.

And thus are they sanctified.


They do not 'remain as sinners'. That is a completely wrong apprehension of the scripture. Nowhere are the justified expected still to be sinners. They are saints. They are the sanctified.

They also do no iniquity: they walk in his ways. Psalm 119:3.

He that is born of God doth not commit (or 'practice') sin, 1 John 3:9. They do not continue in iniquity. 'For his seed remaineth in him: and he cannot sin, because he is born of God, 1 John 3:9 again.

For God (the Holy Spirit) is within them and they cannot sin. He will not suffer them to do so. He will bring them out of it with chastening, with ministration, with instruction. He will not leave them in it.

For this is the will of God, even your sanctification, 1 Thessalonians 4:3.

For the flesh lusteth against the Spirit, and the Spirit against the flesh: and these are contrary the one to the other: so that ye cannot do the things that ye would. Galatians 5:17.

The natural and sinful inclinations of the justified are overcome by the inward dwelling of God, himself, in the Person of the Holy Spirit, Romans 8:1. And his presence leads them, influences them and keeps them from evil.

He restoreth my soul: he leadeth me in the paths of righteousness for his name's sake. Psalm 23:3.

And he leads them into all truth, John 16:13 . . . . such as the truth of justification by faith.


All references are to the KJV/TR.

2

Romans 3:

21But now, apart from the law, the righteousness of God has been revealed, as attested by the Law and the Prophets. 22And this righteousness from God comes through faith in Jesus Christ to all who believe. There is no distinction, 23for all have sinned and fall short of the glory of God, 24 and are justified freely by His grace through the redemption that is in Christ Jesus.

25 God presented Him as the atoning sacrifice through faith in His blood, in order to demonstrate His righteousness, because in His forbearance He had passed over the sins committed beforehand. 26He did this to demonstrate His righteousness at the present time, so as to be just and to justify the one who has faith in Jesus.

27 Where, then, is boasting? It is excluded. On what principle? On that of works? No, but on that of faith. 28For we maintain that a man is justified by faith apart from works of the law.

29Is God the God of Jews only? Is He not the God of Gentiles too? Yes, of Gentiles too, 30since there is only one God, who will justify the circumcised by faith and the uncircumcised through that same faith.

31Do we, then, nullify the law by this faith? Certainly not! Instead, we uphold the law.

Paul explained the concept of free justification with the word "faith" 8 times. Statistically, it is not advisable to detach justification from faith.

2

"I find the law that when I want to do good, evil is present with me"

The following verse, quoted in the Question ...

But they are justified freely [δωρεὰν] by his grace through the redemption that is in Christ Jesus. (Rom 3:24 NET)

... may still be interpreted in the sense that Jesus' self-sacrifice provided the atonement for all sinners who have faith in him. From then on, though, they should obey (not the Law of Moses, but) Jesus' essential commandment, the Law of Love (see Mark 12:28-31)

But Paul's understanding is much more redical than that. Quoting from a Psalm ...

1How blessed is the one whose rebellious acts are forgiven, whose sin is pardoned! 2How blessed is the one whose wrongdoing the Lord does not punish, in whose spirit there is no deceit. (Ps 32:1-2 - emphasis added)

... he writes ...

7“Blessed are those whose lawless deeds are forgiven, and whose sins are covered; 8blessed is the one against whom the Lord will never count sin.” (Rom 4:7-8)

Is Paul's omission of "in whose spirit there is no deceit", from the end of his quotation of Ps 32:1-2 deliberate? Maybe ...

In Romans 7, Paul tries to say something good about the "law" (which he mentions 29 times!) but only manages come up with this, in the end:

So, I find the law that when I want to do good, evil is present with me. (Rom 7:21)

Conclusion

Martin Luther understood Paul correctly when he insisted (contrary to the Catholic understanding) that man is justified in his ineliminably sinful state, simul justus et peccator

2

Here is a another translation that helps clarify what it means to be freely justified.

Yet now, apart from Law, the righteousness of God has been manifested. (being testified to by the law and the prophets) yet a righteousness of God, through Jesus Christ's faith, for all and on all who are believing, for there is no distinction, for all sinned and and are wanting of the glory of God. Romans 8:21 Literal concordant.

It's all done by God and Jesus Christ's faith. Man has nothing to do with it. It is impossible for man to be righteous in and of himself.

The previous chapters of Romans showed no one was found just but God Himself. No one has been able to attain God standard by doing good or keeping the law. How then may one become just before God? Only by becoming partakers of His own righteousness. The channel through which we may obtain this righteousness is the faith of Jesus Christ. He alone of all mankind, not only did good and kept the law, but he believed God even when he smote Him for our sins. It is out of His faith for our faith. CL Commentary

Jesus Christ faith was perfect in God the Father, while he was in the form of the Son of man by his obedience going to the cross and dying for all.

Just as Adams one sin of disobedience brought death to all , so one man's obedience brought life to all.

Therefore just as one man’s trespass led to condemnation for all, so one man’s act of righteousness leads to justification and life for all. Romans 5:18

Justification and life go hand-in-hand. This is the way God chose to do it.

But to the one who does not work believes in him who justifies the ungodly his faith is reckoned as righteousness. Romans 4:5

And we have to remember that even faith is a gift of God, that faith is not generated by the will of man.

By grace you have been saved through faith. And this is not your own doing; it is the gift of God, Ephesians 2:8

We saw foreshadowing of Abraham' faith when he believed God and how it was credited to him as Righteousness.

Jesus is the author and finisher of our faith. 12:3

If one wants to boast let him boast in the Lord.

1
  • Those translations that removed all the part or responsibility of man, even in his faith, are very wrong & laughable in twisting Greek. Faith of christ, is like faith of Christianity, it is a objective genitive, (we must have) zeal of God. See my answer here hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/questions/75348/…
    – Michael16
    Oct 10, 2022 at 2:56
1

Summary of this answer:

A. Justification is free of man's origination.

B. Justification is free of man's establishing the mechanism whereby it happens.

C. Justification is free of man's input. ["Man" being fallen man as a first link in a causal chain].

A. Romans 3:25 [Using BSB which you quote].

"God presented Him".

1 John 4:14

"The father has sent his Son to be the Savior of the world" ESV.

God the Father sent and presented His Son Jesus. Jesus came into this world under the authority of the Father i.e. Jesus was sent. Creation did not dream up or deliver God's way of justifying man. Justifying is free of man's origination.

B. Romans 3:25

"as the atoning sacrifice".

Adam did sin and death come to man [Genesis 2:17]. But death in Christ is also life, for Christ rose from the dead. [For now is Christ risen 1 Cor 15:20]. Justification is free in that Christ's death pays the price of spiritual death for believers, the atoning sacrifice.

C. Romans 3:27

"Where, then, is boasting?".

Ephesians 2:8-9

"For by grace you have been saved through faith, and that not of yourselves; it is the gift of God. Not of works, lest anyone should boast." NKJV.

Having faith in the God of the Bible is something that man does but only as an outworking of God in them. Not their work, but God in them working the gift. Justification is free of man's works or else man would have something to boast about. [ In heaven surely we will not hear anyone say "you needed God to save you but I got here by myself"].

4
  • You focus completely on the content of salvation, not the process which I think is the topic in the passage. My problem with this calvinist or Augustinian view is that it seems like universalist. It is free of everything. The process of man's faith, repentance, change, his whole part is rendered passive like a puppet, and it makes the Gospel msg of God disingenuous who preaches and commands to people of free will. The content of salvation is the point of Eph 2, but this passage is of man's part.
    – Michael16
    Oct 9, 2022 at 13:51
  • @Michael16 My answer tries to focus on the meaning of the "free" aspect of "freely justified". Not to enter a theological debate. Your question asks "Free from what?"
    – C. Stroud
    Oct 9, 2022 at 14:08
  • yes, but, the implications of any answer leads to whether we are referring to the process or content etc. The answer appears to be that it is free from everything (no freewill).
    – Michael16
    Oct 9, 2022 at 14:12
  • 1
    @Michael For me all process and content are part of the "all things" of Romans 11:36. If that means there is no freewill then so be it.
    – C. Stroud
    Oct 9, 2022 at 14:29

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service and acknowledge you have read our privacy policy.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.