This is a question about the KJV and the TR Greek text.
... του κυριου ημων ιησου χριστου της δοξης
[James 2:1 TR - Stephens, Beza, Elzevir, Scrivener - identical]
... our Lord Jesus Christ, the Lord of glory
[KJV 1769 'Lord' added]
The margin in the standard KJV text refers the reader to 1 Corinthians 2:8 '... crucified the Lord of glory'.
Robert Young expresses a very different meaning :
... the faith of the glory of our Lord Jesus Christ, [YLT James 2:1]
I am interested in the absence of the word 'Lord' in the TR text and the reasons Robert Young might have had for the translation he offers.
I am also interested if there is a genuine and substantial issue regarding manuscript variants (as opposed to a merely speculative or argumentative proposition).
James' mention of 'glory' in the context is quite understandable as he is exhorting his reader to have no consideration for any (superficial) 'glory' of the persons being discussed (and described in example in the next verse). He is exhorting and emphasising faith in 'our Lord Jesus Christ'.
But the word order which he uses must be making a point which, perhaps, translators are finding difficult or ambiguous, unless there is a genuine issue regarding manuscript variants which may be the reason for the KJV referencing another, similar, passage as a means of critical recovery.
Additional (my own further comment below) :
The TR text reads την πιστιν του κυριου ημων ιησου χριστου της δοξης which, literally, reads the faith of the Lord of us Jesus Christ the glory. 'The faith' is accusative to the verb 'hold'. The rest is genitive to the noun 'faith'. There is, perhaps, an ambiguity in that one could separate 'glory' and make it genitive to the personal nouns 'Jesus Christ'. Otherwise, 'Jesus Christ the glory' becomes a title in the same way that John calls the Lord 'Jesus Christ Righteous', 1 John 2:1.