Does Leviticus 18:17 forbid all sexual relations with a mother if you had sex with her daughter or vice versa if you are not married to the one you had sexual relations with? I know the apostle Paul talked about when people have sex that they become one flesh but that is only during the sex.
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2 Answers
That verse in Leviticus only states that if a woman is taken as a wife, then sexual relations with her daughters / granddaughters are forbidden. So if there's no marriage, sex isn't even considered.
Also, your claim
when people have sex that they become one flesh but that is only during the sex
... is wrong. That "become one flesh" comes from Genesis 2:24
24 For this reason a man shall leave his father and his mother, and be joined to his wife; and they shall become one flesh.
The "be joined" comes from the word dabaq, and the "shall become one" comes from the word 'echad, so no "sex" involved let alone "only sex".
In 1 Corinthians 7:2
But because of sexual immoralities, each man is to have his own wife, and each woman is to have her own husband.
The word here for "sexual immoralities" comes from the word porneia and addresses any illicit sexual behavior, like the one you've just described. God designed sex as something good but in the confines of marriage... Anything else apart from that is sexual immorality.
answered Dec 30, 2020 at 15:44
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Comments are not for extended discussion; this conversation has been moved to chat.– curiousdannii ♦Commented Jan 1, 2021 at 13:20
In ancient times a man’s primary purpose for sexual relations was to have children and build nations.
Leviticus 18:17 (NLT) “Do not have sexual relations with both a woman and her daughter. And do not take her granddaughter, whether her son’s daughter or her daughter’s daughter, and have sexual relations with her. They are close relatives, and this would be a wicked act.
The purpose of the passage it to discourage men from creating illegitimate children and nations, by impregnating a woman and her daughter, or by impregnating a woman and her granddaughter.
answered Jan 1, 2021 at 12:46
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"In ancient times a man’s primary purpose for sexual relations was to have children and build nations." Can you provide any evidence from the Bible that this is the Bible's view of the purpose of a man?– curiousdannii ♦Commented Jan 1, 2021 at 13:21
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@curiousdannii My answer doesn’t mention anything about the purpose of man. Commented Jan 2, 2021 at 4:17
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A man's purpose for sex, I mean. The claim you make here is what needs evidence.– curiousdannii ♦Commented Jan 2, 2021 at 7:24
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In biblical times sex was primarily for procreation, the evidence is abundant. Genesis says to be fruitful, multiply and fill the earth. Jacob started the nation of Israel with 4 different women. If a woman couldn’t conceive, she would give her maid to her man so he could make children. God killed Onan for coitus interruptus. If a man’s brother died, he was allowed to impregnate his brothers widow (Levirate Marriage). Rehoboam had 88 children. Lots daughters wanted to preserve his seed so they got him drunk and slept with him. Lev 18:17 is about not getting a mother and her daughter pregnant. Commented Jan 4, 2021 at 11:05