Timeline for Why were the Sadducees convinced by Jesus' argument about the resurrection?
Current License: CC BY-SA 4.0
6 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| Nov 2 at 7:00 | comment | added | Martín-Blas Pérez Pinilla | Re: "Hebrew verbs do not have tense..." alhatorah.org/Grammar:Tenses_in_Tanakh | |
| Nov 1 at 17:44 | comment | added | Dottard | @AviAvraham - It is convincing precisely because God is! And God is the God of the living and not the dead; therefore the dead will be raised. | |
| Nov 1 at 15:53 | comment | added | Avi Avraham | This doesn't answer the question why was that so convincing to the Sadducees?, it just gives a somewhat accurate background on the relevant Hebrew grammar | |
| Oct 30 at 15:10 | comment | added | user107763 | Good answer. If I were you I would leave it at 1) and 2) only. Greek has no standing when it comes to Old Testament, only in so far as why the English wording came to be this or that way. | |
| Oct 29 at 19:41 | comment | added | Corey | This adds important context to the question, so I upvoted, but it still doesn't answer the question. This comment puts it nicely. hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/questions/98717/… | |
| Oct 28 at 20:54 | history | answered | Dottard | CC BY-SA 4.0 |