Timeline for Why were the Sadducees convinced by Jesus' argument about the resurrection?
Current License: CC BY-SA 4.0
6 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
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| Oct 30 at 15:11 | comment | added | user107763 | This is getting weird. Clearly, if we were seeing instead "I was the God", then the plain meaning would have been "I am retired from the job" and not "Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob are dead". The accepted answer should be the one pointing out that Hebrew has no verb in the text and that anyway Hebrew verbs have to tense. | |
| Oct 29 at 19:42 | comment | added | Corey | Thanks, @TheChaz2.0! That correctly summarizes my point. | |
| Oct 29 at 12:48 | history | edited | Ray Butterworth | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
Correct a typo.
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| Oct 28 at 21:56 | comment | added | The Chaz 2.0 | I wonder the same thing, as it could be like saying (in English at least/of course), "I am the God that Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob believed in." God is... so it makes sense that He would use present tense even for past-tense people. | |
| Oct 28 at 17:24 | comment | added | Corey | Understood, and maybe I'm failing to ask my question properly. Why did that put the Sadducees to silence? If someone made that argument to me, I would simply say "God saying IS instead of WAS doesn't necessarily point to a resurrection. 'I am the God of your fathers', to modern ears, could be easily be swapped to 'I was the God of your fathers' with little semantic difference." The Sadducees being silenced, though, would suggest the present tense held a strong semantic meaning for them. Why? | |
| Oct 28 at 16:42 | history | answered | Ray Butterworth | CC BY-SA 4.0 |