Timeline for Is the “If” in Romans 4:24 present in the original Greek. If not, why is that included in some translations?
Current License: CC BY-SA 4.0
4 events
when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
---|---|---|---|---|---|
Jul 22 at 0:55 | comment | added | Matt | @PeterKirkpatrick. Thank you Peter. I had essentially come to the same conclusion - without expertise - that you are writing when you wrote : “ I think the basic point is that faith is imputed to those of us who believe means pretty much the same as faith is imputed to us if we believe.”, but I do believe there may be a subtle importance in agency when we have the word “if” that makes the verse (apparently erroneously) place the needed “condition” on the believer, rather than on the creator, if we think of faith as something given, rather than chosen. Thx | |
Jul 21 at 22:13 | comment | added | Dottard | @PeterKirkpatrick - you are correct but that is how the Douay-Rheims translated the Latin which influenced the KJV. | |
Jul 21 at 21:29 | comment | added | Peter Kirkpatrick | The Latin text you have quoted doesn't have if either. I think the basic point is that faith is imputed to those of us who believe means pretty much the same as faith is imputed to us if we believe. Alternative translation choices are in play. | |
Jul 21 at 21:08 | history | answered | Dottard | CC BY-SA 4.0 |