Timeline for To What Prior Writing (proegraphē) Was Paul Referring in Galatians 3:1 Which Speaks of Christ as Crucified?

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Apr 20 at 0:54	history	edited	Dottard	CC BY-SA 4.0	Further explanation
Apr 19 at 13:17	comment	added	Dan Moore		But further, each of the "public notice" examples that I've investigated refers to something which is indeed written. The titulus approach might make sense if Paul was talking to those "before whose eyes" the titulus had actually been seen, but that doesn't seem likely with most of those over in Galatia. And the titulus itself seems an odd referent for that which was put before their eyes, even if they had seen it on the cross, as wouldn't Paul instead refer to the crucifixion itself?
Apr 19 at 13:10	comment	added	Dan Moore		First, on what basis should we defer to option 2 in BDAG, rather than to option 1, which Paul uses in his other writings? Typically, one should be biased towards expecting a given author, writing a comparable piece of literature, to use similar meanings for words unless the context suggests otherwise. Hence, there needs to be a suitable reason for the reader to assume a different meaning for προγράφω than what Paul uses when he refers to something previously written by himself (Eph. 3:3) or in the Scriptures (Rom. 15:4).
Apr 19 at 11:09	history	answered	Dottard	CC BY-SA 4.0