31 “It has been said, ‘Anyone who divorces his wife must give her a certificate of divorce.’[f] 32 But I tell you that anyone who divorces his wife, except for sexual immorality, makes her the victim of adultery, and anyone who marries a divorced woman commits adultery. (Matthew 5, NIV)

It's common to see people say "obviously, this applies if the roles are reversed" but in a conservative/literal reading of the bible, we're on shaky ground to ever say "obviously it means X" if it doesn't explicitly say X.

From other commonly quoted verses on divorce, I do not find any situation where a woman is explicitly said to be able to divorce her husband. We have sections which say remarriage is adultery in any circumstances (no mention of infidelity):

10 And in the house the disciples asked him again about this matter. 11 And he said to them, “Whoever divorces his wife and marries another commits adultery against her, 12 and if she divorces her husband and marries another, she commits adultery.” (Mark 10, NIV)

I know Christians who adhere very strictly to the letter of what's written, and they would argue that while a man may divorce a cheating wife, she cannot divorce a cheating husband.

Are there verses I have missed? Is it valid to say we can interchange husband/wife here and if so why/why not?