Timeline for What is the significance of the LXX going back and forth between God and Lord God in Genesis 2:4-24?
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| May 20 at 10:40 | history | edited | Anne | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
Opening and concluding sentences removed, as corrections
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| May 20 at 10:37 | comment | added | Anne | @RevelationLad I have amended my answer, having learned of a point of confusion the LXX causes re. the 2 accounts of creation in Genesis though does not directly relate to switching from God to Lord God. My answer to this new Q includes quotes here, plus goes into the other LXX problem should the arrangement of its words be followed too slavishly. The correct words would then be set in the wrong place, resulting in an unintelligible contradiction. hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/questions/93267/… | |
| Feb 1 at 18:29 | comment | added | Revelation Lad | We may not be able to be to know "why" but that does not eliminate the ability to discern a significance to the change. If a translator chooses to introduce something which is not present in the original text, surely there is a significance. At a minimum alternating between God and Lord God indicate either two (consistent with let us...) or it signifies a shift in perspective. IE "God" creates all things, but man responds to "God" who created him by acknowledging him as "Lord." | |
| Feb 1 at 17:49 | comment | added | Anne | @RevelationLad I said Yahweh does not enter the narrative until the seventh day (not 'after' it, see Gen.2:1-4). Both terms are used in the Hebrew text as the book I quote from shows. But the LXX deviates 5 times from 2:4 to 22 (over 19 verses) while being correct 5 times. Maybe there were two schools of thought on this so they split it down the middle? (The most unhermeneutical suggestion you will likely ever get!) If their LXX MSS don't give a clue, we cannot know why. | |
| Feb 1 at 17:29 | comment | added | Revelation Lad | Thank you. Some aspects which I do not believe are properly presented in this answer. 1) YHVH does not enter into the narrative until after the seventh day. 2) From the Hebrew text, the two narrative perspective is correct. Elohim is used exclusively from 1:1 to 2:3. Then YHVH Elohim is used exclusively from 2:4 to 4:25. Therefore, why does the LXX translator purposely deviate from what is clear in the Hebrew text? IOW, why does the LXX unnecessarily (wrt to the Hebrew text) use both terms? | |
| Feb 1 at 16:26 | history | answered | Anne | CC BY-SA 4.0 |