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Feb 29 at 18:30 answer added Rob timeline score: -1
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Dec 16, 2023 at 1:08 answer added Ruminator timeline score: 0
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Jul 18, 2023 at 16:48 history edited Michael16
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Jul 17, 2023 at 22:18 answer added Dottard timeline score: 0
Jul 17, 2023 at 20:24 comment added Luke Hill @DanFefferman Right, for the sake of this question I'm assuming 2nd Peter has traditional authorship and is not a forgery 👍
Jul 17, 2023 at 19:42 review Close votes
Aug 1, 2023 at 3:05
Jul 17, 2023 at 19:24 comment added Nigel J @DanFefferman . . . . and thus the disposal of both Paul's inspired words and Peter's inspired words is achieved with a single stroke.
Jul 17, 2023 at 17:36 comment added Dan γραφὰς exclusively refers to "Scriptures" in the NT, although the word itself has a broader meaning of "writings" elsewhere. With that said, the corpus being referred to is perhaps broader than what is today considered "canonical" (e.g., James 4:5).
Jul 17, 2023 at 16:33 comment added Dan Fefferman Besides the question of what the author meant by "other scriptures" is the question of whether the author is actually Peter or not. Indeed, the treatment of Paul's letters as scripture is one argument for a late date of the epistle, implying that it was not written by Peter himself.
Jul 17, 2023 at 16:05 answer added Michael16 timeline score: -1
Jul 17, 2023 at 14:36 history asked Luke Hill CC BY-SA 4.0