Timeline for To Jews in Jesus' time, what did "the Son of Man" mean?
Current License: CC BY-SA 4.0
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| Nov 12 at 20:48 | history | edited | ray grant | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
Add scriptures.
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| May 26, 2023 at 21:55 | comment | added | ray grant | (I, THE SON OF MAN) As for further research, note the verse in Matthew 16:13: "Whom do men say that I the Son of Man am?" And the response of Peter, "Thou art the Christ! (Messiah)." (KJV) Modern translations leave out the "I" (Gk. "me"). The Textus Receptus has this pronoun and is advocated by Greek scholars: Alford, Tregelles, etc.. So, combining the two statements would equate the Son of Man with the Messiah! Jesus accepted Peter's "Christ" while at time He was admitting that He was the Son mentioned in Daniel 7. | |
| May 26, 2023 at 21:41 | comment | added | ray grant | @Dan Fefferman My proof is first and foremost reliant upon the multitude of uses by Jesus Himself. The listings by Pusey and Edersheim do reflect the Jewish culture of the first century, even tho compiled after the Destruction of Jerusalem. Recall that the Jewish commentators liked to quote Rabbis of previous generations to prove their points! The angry responses of the high priests and rabbinical scholars to Jesus's usage also reflect their their belief He was claiming Messiahship. Peace | |
| May 26, 2023 at 3:05 | comment | added | Dan Fefferman | if I read correctly, your proof that Son of Man means "messiah" relies not on contemporary opinion in Jesus' own time but on rabbinical writings of centuries later - the Talmud, Saadia, Zohar, Rashi, etc. If so, the same objection applies to them as you apply to 1st century understandings of Daniel and Ezekiel. I know of no rabbis from the time of Jesus who wrote of the Son of Man. | |
| May 25, 2023 at 20:59 | history | edited | ray grant | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
Spelling corrections
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| May 25, 2023 at 7:39 | vote | accept | Only True God | ||
| May 23, 2023 at 22:58 | history | answered | ray grant | CC BY-SA 4.0 |