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Oct 26, 2022 at 14:34 comment added Ray Butterworth Yes, but the question is about the possible interpretations of the original Hebrew word itself, not about the meaning of the verse. ¶ See the follow up question that I forgot to ask 3 years ago: Why did so many translators choose to interpret Exodus 34:7 as punishment deliberately inflicted by God?. Again notice that it is asking about translation itself, not about meaning.
Oct 26, 2022 at 14:28 history edited agarza CC BY-SA 4.0
fixed grammar, formatting
Oct 26, 2022 at 12:40 review Late answers
Oct 26, 2022 at 14:28
Oct 26, 2022 at 12:23 history answered Ben Gad CC BY-SA 4.0