4 furnished for clarity; tagged
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Numbers 12:2 says:

And they said, “Has the Lord indeed spoken only through Moses? Has he not spoken through us also?” And the Lord heard it.

And they said, “Has the Lord indeed spoken only through Moses? Has he not spoken through us also?” And the Lord heard it.

The word "through Moses" in Hebrew is בְּמֹשֶׁה֙ or bə·mō·šeh with 3 Occurrences. The

The other 2 occurrences are in Exodus 4:14 and Numbers 12:1 where the translation is "against Moses". I would like to know -- why the apparent discrepency?

Thank you.

Numbers 12:2 says:

And they said, “Has the Lord indeed spoken only through Moses? Has he not spoken through us also?” And the Lord heard it.

The word "through Moses" in Hebrew is בְּמֹשֶׁה֙ or bə·mō·šeh with 3 Occurrences. The other 2 occurrences are in Exodus 4:14 and Numbers 12:1 where the translation is "against Moses". I would like to know why the discrepency?

Thank you.

Numbers 12:2 says:

And they said, “Has the Lord indeed spoken only through Moses? Has he not spoken through us also?” And the Lord heard it.

The word "through Moses" in Hebrew is בְּמֹשֶׁה֙ or bə·mō·šeh with 3 Occurrences.

The other 2 occurrences are in Exodus 4:14 and Numbers 12:1 where the translation is "against Moses". I would like to know -- why the apparent discrepency?

3 The word "discrepancy" was spelled wrong
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Numbers 12:2 - Translation DiscrepansyDiscrepancy - Did the Lord speak only through Moses?

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2 edited title
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Numbers 12:2 - Translation DiscrepencyDiscrepansy - Did the Lord speak only through Moses?

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