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Jul 18, 2022 at 16:49 comment added The Editor Although Mary and Elizabeth are called "cousins" by the KJV, I believe the Greek word more generally says they're "relatives," as other translations bear out.
Jul 18, 2022 at 16:16 history edited Hold To The Rod CC BY-SA 4.0
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Jul 18, 2022 at 16:13 answer added Hold To The Rod timeline score: 1
Jul 18, 2022 at 14:24 comment added Nigel J @Henry Elizabeth is of . . . the daughters (plural) . . . of Aaron. She is not a 'daughter of Aaron'. Her origin is . . . . the daughters of Aaron. (And so is Mary's.)
Jul 18, 2022 at 14:23 comment added Henry @NigelJ - For Elizabeth to be a daughter of Aaron, her father would have to be from the tribe of Levi - I do not see that is says anything about the tribe of Elizabeth's mother
Jul 18, 2022 at 14:10 answer added Ray Butterworth timeline score: 2
Jul 18, 2022 at 13:47 comment added Nigel J If Mary is of Levi (and I firmly believe, myself, that she is) then Jesus inherits the promises made to Phinehas (see Numbers 25 and Psalm 106.
Jul 18, 2022 at 13:39 comment added Nigel J @Henry . . . . in which case, Elizabeth's mother would also be a 'daughter of Aaron' and so would Elizabeth's mother's sister, Mary's mother, thus Mary is of Levi. The question is about the meaning of the word 'cousin' and is on topic.
Jul 18, 2022 at 13:20 comment added Henry I am not sure this is a hermeneutics question or answer, but the two standard apologetic replies are that "cousin" does not need to mean first cousins, and that even if it did mean that here it could have been that their mothers were sisters.
S Jul 18, 2022 at 12:52 review First questions
Jul 18, 2022 at 16:16
S Jul 18, 2022 at 12:52 history asked receiveknowledge CC BY-SA 4.0