Timeline for Why do some translations of Ephesians 4:9 have the word "first" and others do not?
Current License: CC BY-SA 4.0
9 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
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| Jul 23, 2022 at 13:15 | history | edited | curiousdannii♦ |
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| Jul 22, 2022 at 14:58 | history | edited | Tim Catchim |
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| Apr 23, 2022 at 2:48 | vote | accept | Tim Catchim | ||
| Apr 23, 2022 at 0:12 | history | became hot network question | |||
| Apr 23, 2022 at 0:00 | history | tweeted | twitter.com/StackBibleHerm/status/1517654623498162186 | ||
| Apr 22, 2022 at 21:37 | answer | added | Dottard | timeline score: 4 | |
| Apr 22, 2022 at 17:01 | comment | added | boxcartenant | Looks like an example of a "meaning-for-meaning" translation intended to communicate that the descension occurred prior to the ascension, in spite of that particular relationship being absent from the literal text. I don't know whether the meaning was appended to the Latin, or later to the English, but it is absent from more modern translations because it was absent in the literal Hebrew. | |
| Apr 22, 2022 at 16:14 | history | edited | Rajesh | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
added 644 characters in body; edited title
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| Apr 22, 2022 at 16:08 | history | asked | Tim Catchim | CC BY-SA 4.0 |