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Apr 2 at 23:27 answer added Mason Simmons timeline score: 0
Mar 17, 2022 at 22:31 comment added Robbie Goodwin @Cork88 Everyone. Don't you think it matters? For instance, are you suggesting Mike Borden's Comment addresses the same idea of Glory as your exposition used? Don't you think Nigel J's Comment falls somewhere between the two?
Mar 14, 2022 at 2:34 comment added Cork88 @RobbieGoodwin Who are you addressing?
Mar 13, 2022 at 22:49 comment added Robbie Goodwin Could you first clearly define "glory", in English and then say whether that came from Aramaic, Greek or Hebrew, or where?
Mar 12, 2022 at 23:26 vote accept Cork88
Mar 12, 2022 at 16:10 answer added Perry Webb timeline score: 5
Mar 12, 2022 at 16:00 history became hot network question
Mar 12, 2022 at 15:00 comment added Mike Borden The word Glory and all it's derivatives in Greek, Latin, and Hebrew is a very old word that means something very much like to substantiate or to be substantiated in the mind.
Mar 12, 2022 at 15:00 history tweeted twitter.com/StackBibleHerm/status/1502660703785832457
Mar 12, 2022 at 10:13 comment added Kyle Johansen I like how the three answers so far are about "give" (Nigel J), "my glory" (me) and "to another" (ארקדיוס).
Mar 12, 2022 at 10:10 answer added Kyle Johansen timeline score: 2
Mar 12, 2022 at 9:56 answer added Nigel J timeline score: 3
Mar 12, 2022 at 9:53 comment added Nigel J Up-voted +1. God's glory is shared by those who are in union with him. It is not 'given to another' : it is shared in union. That they may be one, even as we are one. If 'one' then not 'another'.
Mar 12, 2022 at 9:10 answer added ארקדיוס timeline score: 4
Mar 12, 2022 at 7:57 history asked Cork88 CC BY-SA 4.0