Timeline for What does Paul mean to emphasize when he refers to himself as chief, or the first, or the worst, in 1 Timothy 1:15?
Current License: CC BY-SA 4.0
16 events
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| Mar 23, 2022 at 12:00 | history | tweeted | twitter.com/StackBibleHerm/status/1506601679986339853 | ||
| Mar 4, 2022 at 22:55 | history | edited | Hugs | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
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| Mar 3, 2022 at 16:13 | answer | added | Nhi | timeline score: 1 | |
| Feb 27, 2022 at 7:58 | comment | added | Hugs | No. Just give it up, Michael. Plainly you failed to perceive the specific qualifiers in the question | |
| Feb 27, 2022 at 5:33 | review | Close votes | |||
| Mar 10, 2022 at 6:30 | |||||
| Feb 27, 2022 at 5:13 | comment | added | Michael16 | Does this answer your question? Christ Jesus came into the world to save sinners, among whom I am foremost of all | |
| Feb 27, 2022 at 4:04 | comment | added | Michael16 | I don't know why this duplicate Q has been reinstated. It is asking the same about the meaning of the verse or the word first. Consider the English expression "second to none" or the word prime example, model. It will help understand the context or language. | |
| Feb 26, 2022 at 18:02 | comment | added | Hugs | If it makes good sense and fits with other scripture if or when taken literally... then shouldn't it be? Think occam's razor. | |
| Feb 26, 2022 at 17:32 | comment | added | Michael16 | Urtaking modern hyper literal absolutist interpretation of the text, which is totally against all "sayings", "figures", idioms, general statements or basic language. "I am the worst sinner" or "I am the best example of sinner being saved" doesn't in any way mean that there was really no worse sinner ever born before him, or he was worse than Judas. The speciality is explained clearly in next verse that it's the example/model of a radical unexpected conversion. Salvation itself cannot change for anyone. David called himself a sinner from birth, the same way, in exaggerated language in remorse. | |
| Feb 26, 2022 at 17:24 | answer | added | Sherrie | timeline score: 0 | |
| Feb 26, 2022 at 17:20 | comment | added | Hugs | If you don't think or can't see there was anything different or unique about Paul's salvation... I doubt there's much else to say at this point. Being new to the forum, after there is time to earn more points I might try revisiting this question and simply put a bounty on it -- to attract others to weigh in on the merits of it, and more earnestly consider the ramifications of a "perhaps less traditional" perspective on what Paul's intent in this verse might be if it was more than merely purporting (some would even say, braggadociously) about "how bad" anyone was (or can be) before being saved. | |
| Feb 26, 2022 at 10:49 | comment | added | Michael16 | It is a ridiculous assumption to think he or his salvation was any different and special. He simply meant he was the chief example of sinner saved. The next v describes it further. He was as a model prototype 1 Ti 1:16 (as prime recipient of extraordinary mercy in view of his infamous past, Paul serves as a model for the certainty of availability of mercy to others). The Q is basically duplicate. | |
| Feb 26, 2022 at 8:23 | comment | added | Hugs | It’s actually not even close to being a duplicate, but perhaps you missed exactly what I asked and the other questions associated with it to help explain why I was asking it. I considered just asking how Paul’s salvation was so different than anyone else before him… but thought it more appropriate to this forum to ask it the way I did above | |
| Feb 26, 2022 at 6:37 | comment | added | Michael16 | Duplicate. The original is not coming in the duplicate search list hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/questions/29192/… | |
| Feb 23, 2022 at 23:07 | history | edited | Hugs | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
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| Feb 23, 2022 at 23:01 | history | asked | Hugs | CC BY-SA 4.0 |