When interpreting the doctrine of the Gospel {euangelion, εὐαγγέλιον} in 1 Corinthians 15, we read of a fairly simple explanation of the “good news”:

“Moreover, brethren, I declare to you the gospel which I preached to you, which also you received and in which you stand, by which also you are saved, if you hold fast that word which I preached to you—unless you believed in vain.

For I delivered to you first of all that which I also received: that Christ died for our sins according to the Scriptures, and that He was buried, and that He rose again the third day according to the Scriptures, and that He was seen by Cephas, then by the twelve.

After that He was seen by over five hundred brethren at once, of whom the greater part remain to the present, but some have fallen asleep. After that He was seen by James, then by all the apostles. Then last of all He was seen by me also, as by one born out of due time.” 1 Corinthians 15:1-8

It would appear that the gospel according to Paul is about what Christ did for sinners/sins.

1.) “Christ died for our sins according to the Scriptures“

2.) “and that He was buried”

3.) “and that He rose again the third day according to the Scriptures”

So this is the Gospel that Paul preaches, and any other “gospel” is no gospel at all, and it is to be condemned: (See Galatians 1:6-9).

Also, the word: euangelion {εὐαγγέλιον} occurs 41 times in the New Testament. One such occurrence is also found in Romans 2:16.

The definition of euangelion is: “glad tidings, good, or joyful news”.

My question then becomes very narrow, in relation to Romans 2:16.

We read:

“in the day when God will judge the secrets of men by Jesus Christ, according to my gospel.” Romans 2:16

Knowing the prior context of the wrath & judgment of God in chapters 1:18-32, and Romans 2:1-15, my question becomes more apparent!

Q: Why is it “good news” that God will judge the secrets of men by Jesus Christ?

Note: Judgment in scripture is never “good news”!

When interpreting the doctrine of the Gospel {euangelion, εὐαγγέλιον} in 1 Corinthians 15, we read of a fairly simple explanation of the “good news”:

“Moreover, brethren, I declare to you the gospel which I preached to you, which also you received and in which you stand, by which also you are saved, if you hold fast that word which I preached to you—unless you believed in vain.

For I delivered to you first of all that which I also received: that Christ died for our sins according to the Scriptures, and that He was buried, and that He rose again the third day according to the Scriptures, and that He was seen by Cephas, then by the twelve.

After that He was seen by over five hundred brethren at once, of whom the greater part remain to the present, but some have fallen asleep. After that He was seen by James, then by all the apostles. Then last of all He was seen by me also, as by one born out of due time.” 1 Corinthians 15:1-8

It would appear that the gospel according to Paul is about what Christ did for sinners/sins.

1.) “Christ died for our sins according to the Scriptures“

2.) “and that He was buried”

3.) “and that He rose again the third day according to the Scriptures”

So this is the Gospel that Paul preaches, and any other “gospel” is no gospel at all, and it is to be condemned: (See Galatians 1:6-9).

Also, the word: euangelion {εὐαγγέλιον} occurs 41 times in the New Testament. One such occurrence is also found in Romans 2:16.

The definition of euangelion is: “glad tidings, good, or joyful news”.

My question then becomes very narrow, in relation to Romans 2:16.

We read:

“in the day when God will judge the secrets of men by Jesus Christ, according to my gospel.” Romans 2:16

Knowing the prior context of the wrath & judgment of God in chapters 1:18-32, and Romans 2:1-15, my question becomes more apparent!

Q: Why is it “good news” that God will judge the secrets of men by Jesus Christ?

NOTE: Judgment in scripture is never “good news”!