Timeline for If the Word was God, and the Word was the Son, can we conclude that the Son is God?
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7 events
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| Sep 7, 2022 at 16:10 | comment | added | Revelation Lad | You also do not consider whether the use is kataphoric; nor do you translate according to what you say you believe is the correct meaning...*in the beginning was the Word and the Word was with the God... If in fact the article is definite, why omit that from the translation? My guess is saying the Word was with the God, implies something other than strict monotheism which is a necessary assumption to denying the deity of the Word | |
| Oct 8, 2021 at 19:32 | comment | added | Olde English | @RevelationLad-Have a little time here. Apart from the fact that "Koine" Greek drops the article in a prepositional phrase and verses 6,12,13 & 18 are all prepositional phrases, the correct word ordering now shows an:- anarthrous (no article), pre verbal , predicate nominative (noun)... which describes the class, or category, to which the subject (the Word) belongs, NOT what he supposedly was. See also: hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/questions/48224/… where we had our back and forth then. | |
| Oct 7, 2021 at 20:09 | comment | added | Olde English | @RevelationLad-I have an answer to this seeming quandary but right now I have to get ready to hit the road for about 4 hours, for an extended family visit, whereupon my wife and I will be looking after the grandkids (2 & 4) for an extended weekend, so not sure when I can get to respond, but I undoubtedly will get back to you. | |
| Oct 7, 2021 at 19:36 | comment | added | Revelation Lad | There is no indefinite article in Greek grammar so it is inaccurate to refer to the article as the definite article. It is simply the article and making something definite is just one of many functions. Within the Prologue, the line of reasoning the article is intended to make theos definite runs aground when you arrive at verse 6 and again at verses 12, 13, and 18 all of which use theos without the article. IOW, theos in those verses is used the same as in 1:1c. | |
| Oct 7, 2021 at 16:19 | comment | added | Olde English | Thank you Alex. I was not going to answer this Q., as I basically answered it last year but then realized that I may have something else to offer after seeing all the responses. | |
| Oct 7, 2021 at 13:32 | comment | added | Alex Balilo | Jesus plainly said that God, was the Creator, not himself. Mark 13:19. Even after his resurrection, he called the Father, his God. Revelation 3:12. Very good explanation why Jesus is not God with the capital G. | |
| Oct 7, 2021 at 12:19 | history | answered | Olde English | CC BY-SA 4.0 |