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Ps. Why does the Septuagint translated Psalm 99:1 LXX interpretationwith the optative?

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Ps. 99:1 LXX interpretation

Why did the writers of the Septuagint (LXX) choose the particular word for wrath and use the optative mood for that word (ὀργιζέσθωσαν) normally translated "angry/rage/wrath" in Psalm 99:1 - "The LORD has assumed kingship, let the peoples be angry." It doesn't at all make sense within the context of the Psalm.