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Jun 6, 2021 at 20:20 comment added Miguel de Servet @SpiritRealmInvestigator Thank you for the invitation. My Answer is here.
Jun 6, 2021 at 16:52 comment added user38524 Would you kindly post an answer to this question?
Jun 6, 2021 at 16:23 comment added Miguel de Servet @SpiritRealmInvestigator See my Edit to add of June 4, 2021, 19:15 CET
Jun 4, 2021 at 17:16 history edited Miguel de Servet CC BY-SA 4.0
Explained the meaning of rich = Son of God
Jun 4, 2021 at 16:51 comment added user38524 Wait, so you are actually for the view that Jesus pre-existed his incarnation? The whole time I thought you were against that view. So you understand being rich as "being divine", correct? If that's the case, you are essentially saying the same thing as the top answer and this other answer.
Jun 4, 2021 at 16:28 comment added Miguel de Servet @SpiritRealmInvestigator Read again. Read better. "though he existed in the form of God did not regard equality with God as something to be grasped, but emptied himself by taking on the form of a slave, by looking like other men, and by sharing in human nature." If you still can't see it, you either 1) are a hopeless case or 2) want to have the last word. If 1, sorry for you, if 2, be my guest :) (Enough said ...)
Jun 4, 2021 at 16:10 comment added user38524 Jesus never stopped being the Son of God at any moment, so by your own definition, Jesus never stopped being rich, so he never became poor. Your definition of "rich" = "being the Son of God" doesn't make sense.
Jun 4, 2021 at 13:13 comment added Miguel de Servet @SpiritRealmInvestigator I have already emphasized the strong parallel between 2 Cor 8:1-15 and Philippians 2:1-11. I have fully quoted Phil 2:6-7. Jesus was "rich" because he was the Son of God, but, for our sakes, chose to become "poor" and live like a slave, in full obedience to his Father, our Father Read again. Read better.
Jun 4, 2021 at 11:47 comment added user38524 Your answer doesn't explain what it was that Jesus had (that made him rich) that he later gave away / lost (thus becoming poor). Paul clearly says that Jesus was rich but later became poor, so the transition from rich to poor is undeniable from the text. Can you please explicitly and unambiguously explain in your answer what you understand by 'rich' and 'poor' in 2 Cor 8:9?
Jun 3, 2021 at 21:13 history edited Miguel de Servet CC BY-SA 4.0
Edited to add Philippians 2:5
Jun 3, 2021 at 2:57 comment added Miguel de Servet When you read the whole pericope 2 Cor 8:1-15, there is, in its talking of Jesus “becoming poor for your sakes”, a rhetoric element that makes your question about the “exact date” senseless.
Jun 3, 2021 at 0:00 comment added user38524 So, when exactly did Jesus give up his richness and become poor? Can you provide an exact date?
Jun 1, 2021 at 18:36 history answered Miguel de Servet CC BY-SA 4.0