Timeline for When did the concept that Leviticus laws no longer apply to Christians first become common, and what scripture supports it?
Current License: CC BY-SA 4.0
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| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
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| May 4, 2021 at 2:57 | comment | added | Kyle French | "Not part of the original Greek text" brings up the issue of textual criticism, but it is itself an interpretation of Jesus' words. In Mark 7, Jesus makes a sharp distinction between ceremonial acts and moral acts, correctly pointing out that there is nothing inherently moral in washing your hands and putting food in your mouth. So here you have a distinction between moral law and some other kind of law, which provides a basis for the concept to develop. | |
| May 4, 2021 at 2:44 | history | edited | Kyle French | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
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| May 4, 2021 at 0:23 | comment | added | Polyhat | The "In saying this, Jesus declared all foods clean" is not actually part of the original Greek text. It crept in as an extra-biblical marginal reading, and it makes little sense based on the context. Is that which comes out as excrement from the body declared to be "clean"? Also, the Jerusalem Council only dealt with one specific ritual: circumcision; its decision did not address all of God's law in broad strokes. | |
| May 3, 2021 at 14:58 | comment | added | agarza | Welcome to Bible Hermeneutics SE and thank you for your contribution. When you get a chance, please take the tour to understand how the site works and how it is different than others. | |
| May 3, 2021 at 14:53 | history | answered | Kyle French | CC BY-SA 4.0 |