Why is Matthew changing the text and making it less harsh?

Allow me to quote from the NAS:

Mark 10:17-18: As He was setting out on a journey, a man ran up to Him and knelt before Him, and asked Him, “Good Teacher, what shall I do to inherit eternal life?” And Jesus said to him, “Why do you call Me good? No one is good except God alone.

Matthew 19:16-17a: And someone came to Him and said, “Teacher, what good thing shall I do that I may obtain eternal life?” And He said to him, “Why are you asking Me about what is good? There is only One who is good..."

As you have noted, the texts vary slightly. In Mark, this man came to Christ and began his question with: "Good Teacher, what shall I do..." This is different from Matthew's account, in which the same man is quoted as merely saying "Teacher, what good thing shall I do" -- without addressing Christ as "good."

In both instances, Jesus is answering questions based on how we are told they were asked. In Mark, the Lord addresses the designation the man uses for Him first. Christ then responds to the second clause of that same question. Some would immediately characterize this as a biblical contradiction between Mark and Matthew, but I propose that such is unfounded.

Often, when we read Scripture, we are not privy to full conversations. I suggest there are many instances, like this one, where we receive pieces of a greater whole. It is only when the full text is essential that the record of a complete conversation is conveyed to us.

As may be the case here, the inspired writers faithfully relate only selected information for the greater message of the narrative, as well as the perspective of that particular writer. The full address by the rich young ruler may well have been:

"Good Teacher, what good thing shall I do, that I may inherit eternal life?"

If true, the young man is using the word "good" rather gratuitously, thus, the "harsher" response as you suggest. (Note: Obviously, this is just an educated guess.)

Why is Matthew changing the text and making it less harsh?

Allow me to quote from the NAS:

Mark 10:17-18: As He was setting out on a journey, a man ran up to Him and knelt before Him, and asked Him, “Good Teacher, what shall I do to inherit eternal life?” And Jesus said to him, “Why do you call Me good? No one is good except God alone.

Matthew 19:16-17a: And someone came to Him and said, “Teacher, what good thing shall I do that I may obtain eternal life?” And He said to him, “Why are you asking Me about what is good? There is only One who is good..."

As you have noted, the texts vary slightly. In Mark, this man came to Christ and began his question with: "Good Teacher, what shall I do..." This is different from Matthew's account, in which the same man is quoted as merely saying "Teacher, what good thing shall I do" -- without addressing Christ as "good."

In both instances, Jesus is answering questions based on how we are told they were asked. In Mark, the Lord addresses the designation the man uses for Him first. Christ then responds to the second clause of that same question. Some would immediately characterize this as a biblical contradiction between Mark and Matthew, but I propose that such is unfounded.

Often, when we read Scripture, we are not privy to full conversations. I suggest there are many instances, like this one, where we receive pieces of a greater whole. It is only when the full text is essential that the record of a complete conversation is conveyed to us.

As may be the case here, the inspired writers faithfully relate only selected information for the greater message of the narrative, as well as the perspective of that particular writer. The full address by the rich young ruler may well have been:

"Good Teacher, what good thing shall I do, that I may inherit eternal life?"

If true, the young man seems to be using the word "good" a bit gratuitously, perhaps resulting in an altered response. (Obviously, this is just an educated guess.)

Why is Matthew changing the text and making it less harsh?

Allow me to quote from the NAS:

Mark 10:17-18: As He was setting out on a journey, a man ran up to Him and knelt before Him, and asked Him, “Good Teacher, what shall I do to inherit eternal life?” And Jesus said to him, “Why do you call Me good? No one is good except God alone.

Matthew 19:16-17a: And someone came to Him and said, “Teacher, what good thing shall I do that I may obtain eternal life?” And He said to him, “Why are you asking Me about what is good? There is only One who is good..."

As you have noted, the texts vary slightly. In Mark, this man came to Christ and began his question with: "Good Teacher, what shall I do..." This is different from Matthew's account, in which the same man is quoted as merely saying "Teacher, what good thing shall I do" -- without addressing Christ as "good."

In both instances, Jesus is answering questions based on how we are told they were asked. In Mark, the Lord addresses the designation the man uses for Him first. Christ then responds to the second clause of that same question. Some would immediately characterize this as a biblical contradiction between Mark and Matthew, but I propose that such is unfounded.

Often, when we read Scripture, we are not privy to full conversations. I suggest there are many instances, like this one, where we receive pieces of a greater whole. It is only when the full text is essential that the record of a complete conversation is conveyed to us.

As may be the case here, the inspired writers faithfully relate only selected information for the greater message of the narrative, as well as the perspective of that particular writer. The full address by the rich young ruler may well have been: "Good Teacher, what good thing shall I do, that I may inherit eternal life?"

Why is Matthew changing the text and making it less harsh?

Allow me to quote from the NAS:

Mark 10:17-18: As He was setting out on a journey, a man ran up to Him and knelt before Him, and asked Him, “Good Teacher, what shall I do to inherit eternal life?” And Jesus said to him, “Why do you call Me good? No one is good except God alone.

Matthew 19:16-17a: And someone came to Him and said, “Teacher, what good thing shall I do that I may obtain eternal life?” And He said to him, “Why are you asking Me about what is good? There is only One who is good..."

As you have noted, the texts vary slightly. In Mark, this man came to Christ and began his question with: "Good Teacher, what shall I do..." This is different from Matthew's account, in which the same man is quoted as merely saying "Teacher, what good thing shall I do" -- without addressing Christ as "good."

In both instances, Jesus is answering questions based on how we are told they were asked. In Mark, the Lord addresses the designation the man uses for Him first. Christ then responds to the second clause of that same question. Some would immediately characterize this as a biblical contradiction between Mark and Matthew, but I propose that such is unfounded.

Often, when we read Scripture, we are not privy to full conversations. I suggest there are many instances, like this one, where we receive pieces of a greater whole. It is only when the full text is essential that the record of a complete conversation is conveyed to us.

As may be the case here, the inspired writers faithfully relate only selected information for the greater message of the narrative, as well as the perspective of that particular writer. The full address by the rich young ruler may well have been:

"Good Teacher, what good thing shall I do, that I may inherit eternal life?"

If true, the young man is using the word "good" rather gratuitously, thus, the "harsher" response as you suggest. (Note: Obviously, this is just an educated guess.)