Timeline for What is the significance of the use of different pronouns in Romans 8:30?
Current License: CC BY-SA 4.0
11 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
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| Mar 30, 2021 at 17:22 | history | edited | Revelation Lad | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
added 440 characters in body
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| Mar 29, 2021 at 20:50 | comment | added | Dottard | OK - THAT is an excellent question so why not say that in your OP? | |
| Mar 29, 2021 at 15:00 | comment | added | Revelation Lad | @Dottard if the demonstrative pronoun was left off isn't the same result described? So is the reason it was added is to indicate not all move from one state to the next or to show all must move from one state to the next? Does the use mean all happen at once or is there a process which then must proceed in the specific sequence? | |
| Mar 28, 2021 at 15:00 | history | tweeted | twitter.com/StackBibleHerm/status/1376187328947949569 | ||
| Mar 28, 2021 at 14:53 | history | became hot network question | |||
| Mar 28, 2021 at 14:40 | answer | added | user35953 | timeline score: 0 | |
| Mar 28, 2021 at 11:21 | answer | added | John Rowse | timeline score: 3 | |
| Mar 28, 2021 at 8:10 | comment | added | Dottard | I do not understand what you are asking here. The Greek Paul uses (predictably) is excellent Greek. What is the problem? | |
| Mar 28, 2021 at 2:19 | comment | added | Nigel J | Are you asking why the relative pronoun is used firstly and then the demonstrative pronoun secondly, on the three occasions in verse 30 ? (Up-voted +1.) | |
| Mar 28, 2021 at 2:18 | history | edited | Nigel J | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
edited body
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| Mar 28, 2021 at 1:26 | history | asked | Revelation Lad | CC BY-SA 4.0 |