Timeline for Does "Jesus has come in the flesh" in 1 John 4:2 imply a fleshless pre-existence?
Current License: CC BY-SA 4.0
13 events
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| Apr 3, 2021 at 19:08 | history | edited | Hold To The Rod | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
cited examples as requested in the comments
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| Apr 3, 2021 at 11:05 | comment | added | Miguel de Servet | @SteveTaylor Let me rephrase my previous comment (what I remember of it) according to the suggestions of the Code of Conduct. The aside "I in fact believe this [Jesus existed in spiritual form pre-mortally] is supported by other passages" is an opinion, NOT (part of) an answer, and therefore is inappropriate. | |
| Apr 2, 2021 at 5:59 | history | edited | Hold To The Rod | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
added qualifier "some" to change "has bothered people" to "has bothered some people"
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| Mar 29, 2021 at 18:03 | comment | added | user38524 | @MigueldeServet and HoldToTheRod, let me suggest that you might find the space needed to expand on Jesus' preexistence in the following questions: christianity.stackexchange.com/questions/80957/…, christianity.stackexchange.com/questions/55063/… | |
| Mar 29, 2021 at 17:50 | comment | added | Miguel de Servet | @HTTR I did NOT find your answer troubling, simply biased and loaded. The quotation from Jeffrey Holland is made irrelevant by this simple consideration: what got incarnated in Jesus is God’s word/_dabar_/_logos_: not a “pre-existent person”, but an essential attribute of God, like His spirit/_ruach_/_pneuma_. | |
| Mar 29, 2021 at 17:16 | history | edited | Hold To The Rod | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
amended post to address concerns in the comments
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| Mar 28, 2021 at 2:44 | history | edited | Hold To The Rod | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
added citation
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| Mar 26, 2021 at 8:19 | comment | added | Nigel J | Yes. Agreed. Up-voted +1. Almost certainly the focus of John's words is against the concept that The Messiah came in 'spiritual' form, but not in a real humanity, a shocking heresy. John combats this in the last years of the first century as the error arises. But the question, I would say, is still valid that, as a side issue, John also answers other error by his stated words. Both question and answer up-voted. | |
| Mar 26, 2021 at 4:21 | comment | added | Hold To The Rod | Hi @Dave, the Greek word derives from σάρξ, which can mean literally "flesh" as in the soft tissue of the body distinct from bone & blood, but more practically it is regularly used in the New Testament to refer to a physical body generally. I think the latter is what 1 John 4:2 has in mind since the focus is not on anatomy, but rather testifying that Jesus came physically. A handy reference for how the word is used can be found here: biblehub.com/greek/4561.htm | |
| Mar 26, 2021 at 2:40 | comment | added | Dave | Curious... in your reply, and also for @Spirit Realm Investigator - in your understanding, what is ‘flesh’? | |
| Mar 26, 2021 at 1:36 | vote | accept | CommunityBot | ||
| Mar 26, 2021 at 1:20 | history | edited | Hold To The Rod | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
formatting, fixed typo
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| Mar 26, 2021 at 1:13 | history | answered | Hold To The Rod | CC BY-SA 4.0 |