Timeline for What is the difference between "abolishing the law" and "fulfilling the law" in terms of meaning and implications, in light of Matthew 5:17-20?
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10 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
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| Jan 9, 2022 at 9:14 | comment | added | Austin | It's kinda like how historical British law can help Americans better understand their own laws as they were instituted at their founding. And though the older law can be instrumental in understanding American law, we wouldn't say that the Americans were still somehow under British law even when we may point to exactly equivalent statutes in the earlier laws. I think it's quite similar with the Old Covenant vs the New. | |
| Jan 9, 2022 at 9:08 | comment | added | Austin | Good answer. I just don't think we can pick & choose pieces of the old covenants that we say still apply. It seems that we can get in trouble w/ regard to which "moral commands" are nevertheless only contextually relevant to the Nation-state of Israel. Instead of looking at NT quotations of the law as proof that we are still under it, we could see it as the law, being God-Breathed, is still useful for training us to live for God under the New Covenant (2 Tim 3:16-17). We are not under the Old Covenant at all, but it is nevertheless instrumental in understanding how to live in the New. | |
| Mar 21, 2021 at 20:10 | comment | added | Hold To The Rod | Thank you for the very thorough review of Biblical covenants--and a treasure trove of references. You may (or may not) find intriguing my thoughts here youtu.be/Ld9C0Px0FLw discussing the relationship between grace & covenants. If you don't get too hung up on the points where we undoubtedly disagree, you may find it of interest. | |
| Mar 20, 2021 at 22:52 | comment | added | Nigel J | They that are led of the Spirit (an indwelling Holy Spirit within) do not do the things you suggest. But bring in the law, and (by experience we know) sin arises, as Paul clearly teaches. I shall leave it there. Regards. | |
| Mar 20, 2021 at 22:51 | comment | added | Dottard | “But it is easier for heaven and earth to pass away than for one jot of the Law to become void.” (Luke 16:17), “we uphold the law by faith” (Rom 3:31), “the law is holy, and the commandment is holy, righteous and good” (Rom 7:12), “the law is spiritual” (Rom 7:14), “the law is good” (1 Tim 1:8), keeping the law is to do right (James 2:8). “Do we, then, nullify the law by this faith? Certainly not! Instead, we uphold the law.” (Rom 3:31). “What then? Shall we sin because we are not under law, but under grace? Certainly not!” | |
| Mar 20, 2021 at 22:48 | comment | added | Dottard | @NigelJ - we have been over this before. I fully agree that deeds of the law do NOT, repeat, do NOT save us and cannot do so. However, the moment you say no law is applicable means that we can adulterate, murder and steal with impunity because the law does not apply. Do not reply that this is legalism - legalism is doing good deeds in order to earn God's favor and salvation - that is dead. | |
| Mar 20, 2021 at 22:45 | comment | added | Nigel J | Galatians . . . . 'apart from law' 'without the deeds of the law'. If one's gospel includes law (or a 'moral covenant') then it is no longer gospel, but law throughout. 'Foolish Galatians : who hath bewitched you ?' | |
| Mar 20, 2021 at 22:22 | comment | added | Dottard | @NigelJ - the fact that a phrase does no appear in Scripture does no make it wrong. Here are more examples: Millennium; anti-slavery; monogamy; Christian ethics; Christ-like character; etc. You latter remarks are correct and the means by which the new covenant transforms the sinner to be Christ-like. | |
| Mar 20, 2021 at 22:18 | comment | added | Nigel J | 'The moral covenant' are words never found (or alluded to) in scripture : a bargain between two parties. Righteousness of God, is found, however. And Justification is by faith. With the heart man believeth unto righteousness. | |
| Mar 20, 2021 at 22:15 | history | answered | Dottard | CC BY-SA 4.0 |