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Jun 21 at 19:42 answer added Dan Fefferman timeline score: 0
Jun 21 at 17:42 answer added Nephesh Roi timeline score: 0
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Jun 18 at 15:46 answer added Rob timeline score: 1
Feb 16, 2021 at 22:51 answer added Russell Jay Hendel timeline score: 0
Feb 14, 2021 at 19:39 answer added Dave timeline score: 0
Feb 14, 2021 at 17:39 comment added Ray Butterworth I think the key phrase is "made known to them my laws", which implies that the laws already existed, and Moses simply presented them to the Israelites. ¶ Similarly, "gave them my Sabbaths" doesn't imply newly created. The weekly sabbath day for instance was created in Genesis 2. ¶ I've seen claims that the Isaac sacrifice and Moses's request to sacrifice (Ex 5:3) were part of what is now called Passover.
Feb 14, 2021 at 12:00 history tweeted twitter.com/StackBibleHerm/status/1360921744626905092
Feb 14, 2021 at 9:54 answer added Dottard timeline score: 4
Feb 14, 2021 at 3:34 answer added Robert timeline score: 3
Feb 14, 2021 at 0:31 comment added user38524 @Robert - I'm actually interested in both dimensions: scope/applicability in both time and space/culture
Feb 14, 2021 at 0:30 history edited user38524 CC BY-SA 4.0
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Feb 14, 2021 at 0:28 comment added Robert The commandment at Sinai was given at Sinai for the sons of Israel and for the sons of aaron. Is your question if there were other prohibitions to keep the sabbath at other times and in other cultures, or whether the commandment at Sinai applied to non-Israelis (for that the answer is they applied to those in the group whether sons of israel or others who travelled with them)
Feb 13, 2021 at 22:56 history edited user38524 CC BY-SA 4.0
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Feb 13, 2021 at 22:43 history asked user38524 CC BY-SA 4.0