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When the words of Jesus Christ are evaluated from early Greek manuscripts shouldn’t translation difficulties between Hebrew and Greek be considered.? For example, the word spirit in Hebrew is “ruwach” a feminine noun while the Greek word for spirit “pneuma” is a neuter noun. A quote from Jesus Christ would have been spoken in Hebrew or Aramaic not Greek, so evaluating quotes of Jesus Christ from a Greek textual perspective could potentially be missleading.

I have no formal training in theology but have wondered how this is handled in textual studies. Is this generally understood within Christian studies or have I overlooked something important?

When the words of Jesus Christ are evaluated from early Greek manuscripts shouldn’t translation difficulties between Hebrew and Greek be considered. For example the word spirit in Hebrew is “ruwach” a feminine noun while the Greek word for spirit “pneuma” is a neuter noun. A quote from Jesus Christ would have been spoken in Hebrew or Aramaic not Greek, so evaluating quotes of Jesus Christ from a Greek textual perspective could potentially be missleading.

I have no formal training in theology but have wondered how this is handled in textual studies. Is this generally understood within Christian studies or have I overlooked something important?

When the words of Jesus Christ are evaluated from early Greek manuscripts shouldn’t translation difficulties between Hebrew and Greek be considered? For example, the word spirit in Hebrew is “ruwach” a feminine noun while the Greek word for spirit “pneuma” is a neuter noun. A quote from Jesus Christ would have been spoken in Hebrew or Aramaic not Greek, so evaluating quotes of Jesus Christ from a Greek textual perspective could potentially be missleading.

I have no formal training in theology but have wondered how this is handled in textual studies. Is this generally understood within Christian studies or have I overlooked something important?

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How are early Greek manuscripts that quote Jesus Christ properly understood?

When the words of Jesus Christ are evaluated from early Greek manuscripts shouldn’t translation difficulties between Hebrew and Greek be considered. For example the word spirit in Hebrew is “ruwach” a feminine noun while the Greek word for spirit “pneuma” is a neuter noun. A quote from Jesus Christ would have been spoken in Hebrew or Aramaic not Greek, so evaluating quotes of Jesus Christ from a Greek textual perspective could potentially be missleading.

I have no formal training in theology but have wondered how this is handled in textual studies. Is this generally understood within Christian studies or have I overlooked something important?